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2027 Edition

NSCA CSCS Practice Exam

Take this free NSCA Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist practice exam to get an idea of the type of questions that appear on the actual certification exam.

The NSCA CSCS exam covers main two subject areas: Scientific Foundations and Practial/Applied. The sections are broken down as follows:

Scientific Foundations (95 questions; 1.5 hours)

  • Exercise Science
  • Nutrition
Practical/Applied (125 questions, 2.5 hours)
  • Exercise Technique
  • Program Design
  • Organization and Administration
  • Testing and Evaluation
1. In preparation for the upcoming season, you are tasked with designing a program for a collegiate wrestling team. In order to train upper body stability through closed-chain movements, which of the following exercises would be best to include in your program?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Suspension or TRX rows are considered an upper body closed-chain movement, as the limbs remain stationary while the body moves through space. While goblet squats are also a closed-chain exercise, its primary focus is the lower body. Neutral grip lat pulldowns and pallof presses are open chain movements.
2. When training for maximum strength, how many reps of an exercise would you program at 85% of 1RM?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
85% of one's 1RM should not be sustainable past 4 reps. While 1-2 reps are possible, training for maximum strength warrants work at one's limit. That set/rep scheme is more appropriate for strength maintenance.
3. One gram of protein contains _____ calories.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
One gram of dietary protein contains four calories. One gram of carbohydrate contains four as well, while one gram of fat contains nine calories.
4. In the illustration, the yellow plane represents the:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The plane in yellow in the illustration represents the sagittal plane. The sagittal plane divides the body between left and right. When we are moving through this plane, the body moves forward and backward. Flexion and extension occur through this plane. Most running, rowing, lifting and biking movements occur through this plane.
5. When ordering upgraded equipment for an indoor/outdoor football strength and conditioning facility, which of the following would be the most appropriate addition?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Battle ropes, rings and an isokinetic machine have their place, but developing leg drive at low body angles is a primary concern in football. You could incorporate a sled for rehabilitation, sport-specific conditioning or single leg strength development.
6. Which of the following exercises primarily targets the highlighted muscles?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The muscles depicted in the image make up your gluteus medius, a single leg stabilizer. Lateral X band walks are designed to target this muscle. Dumbbell Romanian deadlifts will engage the glutes, but they primarily target the hamstrings and gluteus maximus. Barbell push press utilizes the legs, but focuses on the prime movers (quads, hamstrings, glute max) rather than stabilizers. Single arm bent over row is primarily an upper body exercise.
7. Which of the following aspects is not an increased performance benefit of good warm-up design?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Warming up can improve short-term range of motion, but flexibility will return to pre-warm up levels after exercise is complete. However, by elevating heart rate and blood flow during a warm-up, you lower muscular resistance and improve elasticity. This allows for greater dynamic range of motion in subsequent activity. Furthermore, through sport-specific movements, a good warm-up leads to faster muscle contraction/relaxation, which aids strength and power output as well as reaction time. Static stretching shows little effect on subsequent sports performance.
8. While coaching a basketball team in the weight room, one of your athletes complains of excruciating pain during a walking overhead lunge. She states the pain began after a fall during the game last night, and resurfaced as soon as she tried to raise a plate over her head. Which of the following would be the best course of action?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The athlete should be sent to the physio or athletic trainer immediately. It's important for strength coaches, head coaches, physiotherapists, and the rest of the support staff to work together. As this is a new injury, inform the athletic trainer so they can conduct a full assessment. You are in the middle of coaching a session and likely are not able to discern the extent of the injury. Any modification could further exacerbate the issue, or maybe it is not that serious. Contacting an athlete's parents before knowing the extent of an injury (except in cases of emergency) could result in unnecessary panic.
9. In which part of the cell does fatty acid oxidation occur?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In humans, fatty acid oxidation occurs within the mitochondria. While it does take place in the cytosol in prokaryotes, we are not considering those organisms as part of strength and conditioning.
10. Which of the following describes the best way to spot a hang power snatch?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
If an athlete misses the lift with the bar in front, instruct them to push the bar away and drop it. If it's unstable as they catch overhead or behind, have the athlete release the bar backward while jumping forward. Always keep a clear area around the platform, and practice safe techniques with minimal load at first.
11. When setting up for a barbell hang clean, the bar makes contact with the body at the ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Adjust an athlete's hand positioning so that the bar sits on the mid-to-upper thigh before starting the hip hinge. This will allow for maximum force in to the bar during triple extension if the athlete keeps the barbell as close as possible to the body. When performing a barbell hang snatch, however, the barbell sits higher along the hip crease due to increased grip width. Any lower point of contact does not constitute a hanging movement.
12. During which phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome has an athlete begun to adapt to new stressors and started supercompensation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The resistance stage is marked by temporary adaptation and a physical ability to meet the new demands. At this point, due to the new challenge, performance reaches levels higher than homeostasis, the starting stage. The alarm stage occurs immediately following homeostasis (again, the beginning level of ability), during which the novel stressor evokes fatigue and a temporary decrease in performance. Finally, the exhaustion stage represents overtraining, or when the stress applied is too great, too long, or does not allow for adequate recovery.
13. During pre-season preparation, you need to test a group of hockey players on their ability to stop on the ice, change direction, and reaccelerate to chase the puck. Which of the following assessments would be best to score this information?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The Pro-agility test, or 5-10-5, requires athletes to sprint laterally 5m in one direction, stop as quickly as possible, push off laterally and sprint 10m the opposite direction, stop and start again and sprint 5m back to the starting point. While hockey players need this skill on the ice, this off-ice test can provide valuable information on their ability to change direction. For that reason, it is regularly used in NHL combines. The other assessments test linear speed, anaerobic endurance, and explosive power, respectively.
14. What is the primary action of the highlighted muscle?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The muscle identified in the illustration is the teres major. It helps the latissimus dorsi internally rotate and extend the shoulder.
15. A soccer player is preparing for the national championship, and he wants to optimally fuel his performance through 90 minutes. Which of the following represents the best nutritional intervention?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While each athlete has different dietary preferences and tolerance, the general recommendation for endurance (60+ minute) events is carbohydrate and lean protein 2-3 hours before the start. Carbs fuel endurance performance while protein slows digestion and muscle breakdown. Fats slow digestion too much and inhibit the effects of carbs, which is the preferred source of fuel. Adding in quick-digesting carbs and electrolytes replenishes lost nutrients for extended performance.
16. Which of the following is not considered appropriate exercise technique for a high plank?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When performing a successful plank, the entire body should be in line, head and neck included. Looking straight ahead creates an arch in the neck that pinches the spinal cord. Keep everything in neutral by contracting the glutes and stacking wrists safely underneath your shoulders.
17. During an explosive training day, which of the following exercises could logically serve as a main lift?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
It's the only total body explosive movement listed. All others are accessory exercises designed for control, strength and isolation work.
18. When designing a new free weights facility, where in the room should you place the dumbbells?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Free weights should be stacked along the perimeter of the facility, allowing for free, unobstructed walkways. They should be placed in a separate, safe location where athletes can perform free weight movements without added risk. All other areas increase injury risk.
19. How could this coach immediately improve the safety of this athlete?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When spotting a dumbbell press, it's important to keep your hands near an athlete's wrists. That way, if they begin to struggle, you can quickly divert the weight away from their face. Spotting at the elbows risks serious injury if the weights begin to fall. While weight and incline adjustments might be appropriate in some cases, they are not an immediate safety concern in this picture.
20. When performing a lower body one-rep maximum testing protocol, about how much should you increase the weight after a 3-5 rep initial warm-up load?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
After a few tolerable warm-up reps, increase the weight up to 20% for lower body exercises. This will allow the athlete to jump significantly on their way to a single-rep max, while not overloading the body too soon. A smaller incremental increase could cause fatigue, as the athlete will need too many sets before reaching maximum. A larger incremental increase, however, risks injury as the body is not adequately prepared for the load. 10-20 lbs (5-10%) increases are appropriate for testing upper body 1RM.
21. A freshman 400-meter sprinter starts the season as a novice in the weight room. After two weeks, however, she's able to increase her five-rep front squat load by 25lbs. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this improvement?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Strength increases in athletes of a young training status are primarily due to improved motor learning and coordination. While eating well and having a solid support system do not hurt, they are not likely to be the primary reason for strength gains.
22. After aerobic endurance exercise, athletes should rehydrate with _________ of fluids for every pound of body weight lost.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
According to the NSCA's Guide to Sport and Exercise Nutrition, 20-24oz of fluid replacement for every pound lost during training will adequately rehydrate athletes. Anywhere from 6-24 L per pound lost is way too much fluid, and 6-12 oz would fail to reach minimum rehydration.
23. The ________ phase of sprinting begins "when the ball of the lead foot creates forceful contact with the surface and ends when the foot leaves the surface".
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The drive phase of sprinting constitutes forcefully pushing off of the ground to propel forward motion. The recovery phase involves rapid cycling of the heel toward the hip and back to the ground. Both of these phases occur during maximal velocity. Acceleration and deceleration phases are separate segments of sprinting.
24. During which portion of the athletic season would program design center on maintaining sufficient cardiovascular fitness, injury rehabilitation, low training intensities and improved weak spots?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Recovery from the demands of an intense season is the primary goal of the post-season phase. Athletes should still maintain adequate levels of fitness for general health. During the off-season, athletes build a base with gradual increases in training duration and intensities. Pre-season programming increases intensity further, lowering duration as the season approaches. In-season training consists of maintenance with lower-intensity, short-duration sessions around practices and games.
25. Which of the following represents the most appropriate way to test and retest power in youth populations?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Using a portable contact mat allows the coach to assess peak power anywhere by measuring jump height and body mass. While a Wingate anaerobic cycle test is an appropriate measure of power, variations in limb length, seat height, biomechanical efficiency and access to equipment make it unreliable in youth populations. 1RM bench tests maximum strength, and it is not appropriate for many youth populations. A treadmill VO2 max test requires expensive equipment and measures aerobic capacity.
26. A written and posted emergency response plan covers all of the following, except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Although every strength and conditioning professional needs a current CPR/AED certification, it's not part of a written a posted response plan. According to the NSCA, a written and posted emergency response plan should cover access to a physician or medical facility, communication with and transportation to medical facilities and the availability of on-site emergency care equipment that is quickly accessible. All personnel are to have a thorough understanding of the plan.
27. Which energy system does an athlete's body primarily rely on during a 3-minute period in a wrestling match?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wrestling requires high levels of anaerobic endurance, which stems from glycolysis. Three minutes of sustained effort is too long for the phosphagen system, yet the high-intensity nature of wrestling quickly surpasses oxygen availability for aerobic metabolism.
28. Which of the following nutritional interventions would most likely improve the anabolic response to resistance training, reduce muscle damage and slow protein catabolism?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The branched-chain amino acids, leucine, isoleucine and valine have been shown to decrease muscle damage and contribute to growth hormone. Fish oils can fight inflammation and contribute to cognitive health. Water is good for everything, but it's not the best choice to elicit the aforementioned responses. Bacon tastes great, but it's much higher in fat than protein.
29. Which of the following movement screens would be most appropriate for determining thoracic mobility?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In absence of adequate thoracic extension, an athlete will need to compensate in order to raise their arms over their head. Either they will fail to achieve "elbows by the ears" without shifting into a forward head posture, or they will arch their lower back to facilitate an overhead reach. While other issues may exist - and it's important to screen further - the bilateral overhead raise isolates thoracic mobility the most out of the above options.
30. A high school lacrosse team is holding summer practices to prepare for their upcoming season. The team captain wants to hold extra conditioning on Sunday afternoons, even though it's 90 degrees outside. You absolutely cannot be there due to a prior commitment. As a strength coach, which of the following is the best way to proceed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
It is best to suggest an alternative day/time during which both yourself and the athletic trainer can be present. A strength and conditioning coach and a sports medicine staff member should always supervise the health and safety of athletes. The S&C coach should always be present in cases of high-risk conditioning, such as 90-degree weather. All other options place the athletes under unnecessary risk of grave or serious injury.
31. Through which planes of motion does a reverse lunge primarily occur?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Movement through the sagittal plane occurs front to back, as does a reverse lunge. There is some movement in the frontal plane during the descent as well. Slight shifts in balance may cause displacement in the transverse plane, but it's not the intention of this exercise.
32. Which of the following is outside of the scope of practice for a personal trainer to do during their initial consultation with a new client?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Personal trainers are not licensed and registered dietitians, so it is outside of their scope of practice to prescribe specific dietary practices. A trainer who is not qualified to do this may cause more harm than good. Personal trainers, however, are able to make general recommendations in line with national guidelines. Their training and education allows them to make exercise-related prescriptions and recommendations.
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How should I study for the NSCA-CPT exam?

Practice tests and flash cards are an effective way to study for the NSCA personal trainer exam.  They help you learn the subject matter and practice your test taking skills.  The NSCA-CPT is taken on a computer, so practicing with online practice tests can boost your chance of success.

What is on the NSCA-CPT exam?
 

To earn your CPT credential in personal training through the National Strength and Conditioning Association (NSCA), you will have to take an exam. The NSCA Certified Personal Trainer exam is comprised of 155 multiple-choice questions based on four subject areas. These subject areas are as follows:

1. Client Consultation and Assessment:

  • Initial Interview
  • Medical History and Health Appraisal
  • Performance Evaluation
  • Basic Wellness Review

 
2. Program Planning:

  • Program Design
  • Special Populations

 
3. Program Execution:

  • Execution Instructions
  • Evaluation Exercise Technique
  • Training Adaptations
 

4. Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues

  • Safety Procedures
  • Emergency Response
  • Professional, Legal and Ethical Responsibility

For more information, see the NSCA-CPT FAQs.

 

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