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2026 Edition

Practice Exam for the NCLEX-RN

Take this free NCLEX-RN practice test to study for your nurse licensing exam. Our NCLEX-RN test prep is written by instructors in nursing. To prepare for your RN exam, use our NCLEX-RN Practice Exam with 850 questions and case studies. See the below links for free NCLEX-RN flash cards, a video of the practice test and a NCLEX-RN study guide. For more free NCLEX-RN practice questions, use our NCLEX-RN Practice Test.

Management of Care 

1 At the beginning of the shift, a nurse receives a report for her daily assignment. Which of the following situations should the nurse give first priority?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When prioritizing needs of clients, the nurse must begin with the unstable client or manage conditions that affect airway, breathing, or circulation first. The client with COPD has a condition that affects breathing and is exhibiting decreased oxygen saturation levels; therefore, this client should be the first priority.

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2 A patient is to get an MRI of the abdomen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the patient?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Metal objects should not be used near an MRI. An MRI, or Magnetic Resonance Imaging device, will not function properly when magnetic objects, such as jewelry are nearby, and can cause harm to the patient through the MRI pulling the objects away from the patient. Patients should be assessed for metal materials within the body as well, such as joint replacement or spinal hardware. Unless otherwise instructed, it is safe for a patient to take oral medications, eat solid foods, and urinate as usual prior to getting an MRI or following an MRI.
3 Which of the following symptoms would support a diagnosis of Crohn's disease?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Rectal cramping and bleeding would be the most consistent in supporting a diagnosis of Crohn's Disease. While it is unclear what causes Crohn's disease, patients almost always present with these symptoms. Fatigue and headaches could result following blood loss in Crohn's disease but would not be used to make a definitive diagnosis. People with Crohn's disease may experience stomach swelling and gas. These are also symptoms of all types of IBD. They would not necessarily be used to make a diagnosis as these symptoms are present in many other intestinal-related diseases.
4 A 50-year-old female is one-day post-op from a total abdominal hysterectomy. The RN is busy with another patient and asks the certified nursing assistant for help. Which of the following is inappropriate delegation by the RN?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The certified nursing assistant is not authorized to instruct patients on post-operative care or wound care. This should never be delegated. It is within the certified nursing assistant's scope of practice to perform the other interventions.

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5 A doctor visits a patient in the morning prior to a scheduled cholecystectomy to get consent for the procedure. He hands the nurse the consent form prior to leaving the unit. When the nurse steps into the room, the patient has multiple questions regarding the surgery, indicating that everything about the procedure was not disclosed. Which is the appropriate response by the nurse?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The physician has the responsibility of discussing a procedure, risks/benefits, and alternatives to the procedure; the nurse is unable to do this. Additionally, choice A is incorrect as a patient has the right to withdraw consent at any time, even after signing the consent form.
6 Mr. W has orders for a physical therapy consult. The nurse contacts the appropriate department but 12 hours later, no one has come to see the client. Which is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Nurses must typically work as part of a larger interdisciplinary team that involves collaboration with other professionals. In order to fulfill the client's needs, communication between disciplines should remain respectful, with clear directions about each discipline's responsibilities. Communication between all parties minimizes confusion about the client's care.
7 The "B" in the SBAR acronym stands for:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The "B" in the SBAR acronym stands for Background. The SBAR is a communication tool used between providers that regulates the type and amount of information given. When contacting a physician, the nurse provides information about the situation, the client's background, the nurse's assessment, and further recommendations.

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Safety and Infection Control 

8 Which of the following is an example of client handling equipment?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Client handling equipment is designed to reduce the stress and workload on nurses who must assist, turn, or lift clients. This equipment decreases the risk of injuries associated with improper lifting. A height-adjustable bed raises the client up to a proper working height for the nurse who must provide assistance.
9 Which practice will help to reduce the risk of a needlestick injury?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When administering an injection or using sharps for a procedure, the nurse can minimize safety risks by keeping a sharps container nearby. This provides easy access for quick disposal to prevent the possibility of a needlestick. Needles should never be recapped after use and nurses should always exchange needles from a central area rather than passing them between workers.
10 Which of the following is an organizational factor that affects workplace violence directed at nurses?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Understaffing of nursing personnel may be an organizational risk associated with workplace violence for nurses. Understaffing involves too few nurses on duty, which may not be enough to meet client needs at the time or may result in longer delays for provision of care. Greater amounts of activity and diminished numbers of nurses to provide care may result in aggression, violence, or anger from clients or families directed toward staff.

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11 Which of the following infectious control methods should be used when caring for a patient with bacterial pneumonia?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A patient with Bacterial Pneumonia may spread the disease through droplets from coughing or sneezing. Droplet precautions would be appropriate. A mask is required to prevent inhalation of droplets containing bacteria. Flowers are allowed into the patient room as this should not worsen the patient's condition, unless the patient has an allergy. Proper sanitization measures are acceptable when handling utensils used by a patient on Droplet precautions. Visitors can be allowed, provided a mask is worn within the room of a patient who may be coughing.
12 The nurse notices a CNA using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer after walking out of a room marked as Enteric Contact Precautions. What should the nurse's response be?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A room marked with Enteric Contact Precautions indicates that normal alcohol-based hand sanitizer will not remove the bacteria present in the room. Hands should be washed with soap and water, instead of using hand sanitizer. A mask is not indicated with Enteric Contact Precautions. The CNA should dispose of gloves inside the room to contain the bacteria within the room, then hands should be washed with water and soap.
13 A newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic presents with a blood glucose of 700, increased ketones, fruity-smelling breath, and rapid deep breathing. An ABG is performed. As the nurse reviews the labs, she notes the following values: pH of 7.25, HCO3 of 17mEq/L, PaCO2 31 mm Hg. Which acid-base imbalance is present?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
First, we look at the pH. The normal pH range is 7.35-7.45. Acidosis is present when the pH is below 7.35. Thus, we can eliminate the alkalosis answers. The HCO3 is also low (normal is 22-26) as is the PaCO2 (normal is 35-45). Both values point to metabolic acidosis.

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14 A nurse is advising a patient with Chronic Fatigue Syndrome on infection control procedures. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates that the patient understands the advice?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A patient making this statement understands that one step in infection control is avoiding patients who have cold symptoms. This is important as the person with Chronic Fatigue Syndrome may be more susceptible to a virus or the virus may trigger more disease symptoms. The patient who verbalizes they are not going to the basketball game or are going to avoid functions with large crowds may understand that Chronic Fatigue Syndrome can cause the patient to become tired, but this does not indicate the patient understands infection control. Infection control measures can be implemented at events by following standard precautions, such as handwashing. If the patient stops going to social events, this can also cause the patient to become depressed and isolated. Infection control statements would more accurately be made about prevention of infection. A blood test would only indicate if the patient already has an infection.
15 A portion of a building collapses after an earthquake, sending multiple patients to the nearest emergency room. Which of the following patients should be first priority?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
This patient is experiencing respiratory distress and needs immediate attention. While the other patients need to be evaluated as well, Option C is the most urgent situation.
16 Which of the following patients would not require a mask to be worn while providing care?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Shingles is caused by the herpes zoster virus and requires contact precautions. Varicella and tuberculosis require airborne precautions which are necessary for diseases where infectious material can remain suspended in the air for extended periods of time. Droplet precautions are required for diseases where pathogens are transmitted by respiratory droplets (droplets greater than 5 microns), which can occur when a patient is coughing, sneezing, or even talking.

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17 A doctor orders restraints on a confused patient who is constantly pulling her NG tube out and has tried several times to remove her catheter. The nurse understands that appropriate use of restraints includes all of the following except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While the restraint should have some slack, they should NOT be tied to the side rails. Instead, a quick-release knot should be used and tied in an area where the patient cannot reach.

Health Promotion and Maintenance 

18 A patient is not to eat or drink anything 24 hours before a colonoscopy.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A patient may be instructed to not eat any solid foods up to 24 hours prior to a colonoscopy, however clear liquids are typically allowed until midnight prior to the procedure up to a couple hours prior to the procedure. The nurse will need to verify the orders given by the physician.
19 A nurse is putting together an educational seminar on advance directives. What information would be included in the materials?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Under Federal law, all healthcare facilities are required to provide patients with information on how to make medical decisions under Federal and State law, including accepting or refusing treatments and creation of an Advance Directive. The patient has the right to change a treatment decision in an advance directive, regardless of whether the patient's healthcare agent approves or denies the change. It is the patient's right to appoint a Durable Power of Attorney at the time and place of his choosing. It is not required for entry to a hospital. The healthcare facility is not required to provide an attorney to a patient to sign a living will. The patient needs to determine which attorney they want to hire or if they want to hire an attorney.

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20 Which of the following patients should a nurse recognize as having an increased risk of breast cancer while doing breast cancer screening?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The risk for breast cancer is increased in elderly patients who have not had children. Patients who have had children are at less risk for breast cancer than those who have not had children. Breastfeeding decreases the risk for breast cancer. A patient who started her menstrual cycle at age 12 would be a decreased risk for breast cancer. Patients with irregular cycles or who started at an earlier age may be at an increased risk for breast cancer.

Caring for Acute or Chronic Conditions 

21 A nurse just started a blood transfusion for a patient with a Hemoglobin of 6. The patient says, "I feel hot, my stomach hurts, and I am having difficulty breathing." What should be the nurses first action?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The first action should be to stop the transfusion immediately once the patient complains of any unusual symptoms. The patient is reporting symptoms of a transfusion reaction therefore the transfusion should be stopped to prevent the patient from worsening. The provider should be notified immediately after stopping the transfusion. Vital signs should be taken as quickly as possible or as instructed by the provider after the transfusion has been stopped and the physician has been notified. A code should be called if the patient becomes unresponsive. A rapid response could be called if the patient is at risk of destabilizing.
22 Which of the following statements should the nurse give to a Type 2 Diabetic patient?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The correct statement by the nurse is that the patient should wear closed toe shoes when ambulating. Patients with Diabetes are at high risk for impaired sensation in their lower extremities and may develop wounds that are difficult to heal. Patients with Diabetes should be encouraged to eat more fruits and vegetables as part of a healthy blood-sugar regulating diet. Increasing physical activity is another way the patient with Diabetes can regulate blood sugar levels. If the Diabetic patient is checking blood sugars, the levels would normally be checked prior to meals, typically to determine a dose of insulin.

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23 Which of the following advisements should a patient suffering from GERG receive?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the answers are correct. A high-protein, low-fat diet is appropriate for patients with GERD as following this diet helps prevent symptoms of acid reflux. A high-fat diet may delay gastric emptying leading to more acid reflux. Remaining upright will help keep pressure off of the esophageal sphincter and allow the muscle to work appropriately. Limiting the intake of acid-stimulating food and drink will also prevent heartburn by calming the esophageal lining and preventing the esophageal sphincter from weakening.
24 Which of the following symptoms would a patient exhibit with hyperthyroidism?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A patient with hyperthyroidism will present with the opposites of the listed symptoms. Too much thyroxine is produced, causing the body's metabolism to rise. This leads to an intolerance to heat, a decrease in weight gain, increased bowel movements, a rapid heart rate, and warm, clammy skin.
25 A patient has Incentive Spirometry ordered QID x 10 breaths after a cholecystectomy. The patient is asking why they need to perform this action. Which of the following would not be a reason the patient should use the Incentive Spirometer?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Using an Incentive Spirometer will increase lung capacity, opening the bronchioles, and allowing for better oxygenation throughout the body. Using an Incentive Spirometer gently exercises the lungs and will encourage the patient to take long and deep breaths instead of short and shallow breaths which are common following surgery. Maintaining adequately expanded lungs and allow better oxygenation through the blood stream will improve recovery times, allowing for the patient to start ambulating sooner as well as encourage proper healing to the surgical site. Incentive Spirometry use prevents pneumonia by keeping bronchioles open and clear, minimizing the sustainable environment for pneumonia to develop.

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Psychosocial Integrity 

26 While preparing for discharge, a patient makes the statement to the nurse, "I'm not sure I will be able to take care of myself at home." Who is the most appropriate team member to report this statement?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The case manager is the most appropriate healthcare team member to report this kind of statement to, especially around discharge. An assessment may need to take place regarding the living and financial situation of the patient. The doctor and director of nursing would most likely refer the nurse back to the case manager, so it would be appropriate for the nurse to report this statement to the case manager first.
27 A patient's spouse died three months ago. The patient says "I would like my friend Tom to have my collection of artwork because I don't need to look at them anymore." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be proper?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
It is appropriate for the nurse to ask this question of the patient as a close-ended question with two responses. The nurse can decide based on the patient's response if further evaluation is needed. As to the other answer options, the focus should remain on the patient as it will be easy for the patient to sidetrack a conversation. In answer option d, it is an open-ended question and gives the patient an opportunity to evade further questions about the patient's plan to commit suicide.
28 A patient with a history of schizophrenia says "The medical staff is secretly employed by the CIA to take me out." The nurse should respond as follows:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The best therapeutic communication with a schizophrenic patient is to acknowledge their fears while also developing rapport with the patient as a nurse. This statement best meets those needs. A patient with schizophrenia will truly believe in the statements they are making, so the nurse should not try to convince the patient they are wrong as this may develop distrust between the nurse and patient. The focus should remain on the patient and their beliefs. The nurse should not bring other patients into the conversation. As to answer option d, this statement does not acknowledge that the patient's thoughts are their reality. The patient may also not know the answer to this question and the nurse will not be able to develop rapport with the patient.

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29 The spouse of a patient in a long term treatment facility asks a nurse for information about the patient's treatment plan. The nurse should respond as follows:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Unless the patient has given consent for information to be given to the spouse, the nurse should respond that no PHI, or Protected Health Information, can be given out. Treatment plan information would be considered PHI under HIPAA. It would not be appropriate to direct the spouse to the patient for the information. The nurse should already be aware of the treatment plan information and can ask permission from the patient to speak to the spouse. It is not appropriate for the nurse to pass the buck to the provider. In this scenario, the nurse should tell the spouse that information cannot be given. Even if the spouse knows the patient's Social Security Number, the patient's PHI is protected under HIPAA.
30 A patient is brought to the emergency room by her spouse. The patient's injuries are indicative of physical abuse. Which of the following actions should be taken by the nurse?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Using therapeutic communication, the nurse should question the patient about the possibility of abuse. It is appropriate to talk with the patient when the spouse is out of the room as the patient may be fearful and not answer questions honestly if the spouse is in the room. It is not appropriate to question the patient when spouse is in the same room. It is not appropriate to approach the spouse with suspicion of abuse as this could cause further damage to the patient and make it more difficult for the patient to leave the abuser. The patient is not required to speak to the police. It is up to the patient to determine if they want to speak to the police, though the nurse can encourage the patient.
31 A patient is scheduled for surgery to have his appendix out due to acute appendicitis. The patient says "I don't think I need surgery now because I feel better." A nurse should respond as follows:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
It is most appropriate to notify the doctor that the patient is rethinking about receiving the surgery. The doctor will need to discuss their options again and reinforce to the patient that surgery is required or not. It is not appropriate for the spouse to explain the procedure to the patient. This should be done by medical staff. The patient may have questions that can only be answered by the doctor, therefore the doctor should be notified. The nurse may not be able to explain the procedure appropriately and may cause the patient to distrust the medical staff, therefore the doctor should be notified as they may need to receive consent a second time.

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32 Which method should be the last resort in assisting a patient who is experiencing mild anxiety?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Non-pharmacological methods should be used prior to pharmacological methods. Haldol is normally given to patients experiencing severe anxiety or agitation and should be used as a last resort. A patient may benefit from the nurse sitting with them and providing calm conversation over the anxiety-causing issue. Deep-breathing is well-known calming technique used to calm the nervous system and can help in cases of anxiety or panic attacks. Progressive Muscle Relaxation can be used to encourage the patient into a more relaxed state. The nurse can assist the patient to lay on the bed and provide instructions to the patient in a slow calm voice. Progressive Muscle Relaxation would be helpful for mild anxiety.
33 A client has been diagnosed with a form of terminal cancer and has started receiving hospice care. The nurse notes that both the client and his family avoid talking about the diagnosis. All attempts at discussion result in changing the subject. The nurse recognizes that this family is exhibiting:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mutual pretense is a form of awareness as a response to death or dying in which those involved avoid discussing the situation. In a case of terminal illness, a client and his family are aware of the diagnosis; but the client may not want to talk about the situation for various reasons, such as saving his family from feelings of grief, fear of the future, or discomfort with talking about feelings.
34 A nurse is caring for a child whose parents live in a home with several other unrelated children and adults. Some of the people who live in the home have visited and the nurse discovers that this group all shares finances and living conditions. What type of family is this most likely an example of?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A communal family is a group classified as a non-traditional family. In this situation, adults who are not related may live and work with other adults and their children all together in a household. The communal family may share expenses, food, and childcare in the same way as a traditional family.

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35 A fellow nursing student receives a poor grade after failing to perform a clinical procedure correctly. He vents to you, stating "My instructor does not like me. She is always singling me out and does not want me to graduate." This is an example of which defense mechanism?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Rationalization occurs when a person tries to avoid taking responsibility for their behavior, choosing instead to blame someone or something else. Regression is defined as going backward to a previous developmental stage, usually because it makes a person feel safe. Dissociation deals with a temporary shift in consciousness (such as disconnecting oneself from one's feelings), usually as a reaction to significant stress or trauma. Substitution is when a person substitutes an easier goal or desire for an original goal or desire which proves unreachable.
36 A patient is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following patient statements is concerning?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While lithium has been associated with increased risk of Ebstein's anomaly in pregnant women, abruptly discontinuing lithium will likely lead to a relapse of symptoms, which can be detrimental to the patient.
37 A nurse is preparing to talk about body changes with a client who just had a bilateral mastectomy. Which of the following actions of the nurse is most appropriate during this discussion?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When preparing to talk with a client about a difficult subject, the nurse can provide an environment that is private and that offers minimal distractions. This gives the client an opportunity to open up about personal feelings without being interrupted, and may provide more open communication between the nurse and client.

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38 A nurse is attempting to speak with a client about his personal feelings of self-esteem and self-concept. Which of the following questions is most appropriate for assessing a client's personal identity?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When assessing a client's personal identity, the nurse should focus on questions that determine how the client feels about himself. This may mean asking questions that help him identify his personal strengths and weaknesses, as well as how he thinks others see him.

Basic Care and Comfort 

39 In which of the following ways can the nurse promote the sense of taste for an older adult?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
As clients age, their sense of taste may diminish, reducing the joy that comes with eating. A nurse can promote the sense of taste for a client by encouraging him to chew his food thoroughly while eating. This results in longer contact of food with the taste buds and a greater chance of tasting the food.
40 All but which of the following medications may cause urinary retention?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hydrochlorothiazide or HCTZ is a diuretic, which generally leads to increased urination. Benadryl is an antihistamine, Xanax a benzodiazepine, and Lioresal an anticholinergic, all of which are drug classes that can cause urinary retention.

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41 A woman presents to the labor unit, reporting contractions every five minutes which are getting stronger. She rates her pain 7 out of 10 on the pain scale. Upon assessment, she is 5cm dilated. She declines pharmacologic intervention. Which of the following pain therapies would not be appropriate in this situation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pudendal nerve blocks use medication, like lidocaine, to numb the area between the vagina and rectum. Additionally, it is usually used in the second stage of labor (once a patient is 10cm dilated and pushing). It is the only option that is considered a pharmacologic intervention. The other options are nonpharmacologic in nature. Per the question, the patient declines pharmacologic intervention.
42 Which of the following is a potential complication from prolonged immobility?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A, B, and C are all complications of prolonged mobility. Prolonged mobility also decreases appetite.
43 Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A prerenal condition is that which causes reduced urinary elimination due to a diminished blood flow to the kidneys. A condition such as cardiac tamponade affects the heart's ability to pump adequate amounts of blood, thereby reducing blood flow to vital organs throughout the body, including the kidneys.

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44 A nurse is assessing an African American client for risks of a pressure ulcer. Which of the following best describes what the nurse might find with an early pressure ulcer in this client?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When assessing for signs of developing pressure ulcers in a client with dark skin, decreased circulation may not always be readily apparent. For instance, blanching, the red undertones seen in light-skinned clients, will not always be present. Instead, the skin of an early pressure ulcer may develop a purple or bluish color.
45 A nurse is teaching a staff seminar on patient confidentiality. Which of the following statements would be included in the presentation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Consent to disclosure is implied in the transfer from one health provider to another for Continuity of Care under HIPAA laws as long as the facility members receiving the Patient Health Information, or PHI, are directly involved in the care of the patient. Consent must be in writing from the patient to allow the family members to see the patient's medical record or receive information from care providers. Updates on the patient's status should only be given with consent from the patient. This includes all family members, even a spouse. Under HIPAA laws, only staff operating in the direct care of the patient are allowed access to a patient's medical records.
46 A patient is suffering from heart failure. Which of the following would be recommended by a nurse as part of the patient's health care plan?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Swelling of the lower limbs, known as edema, is due to a buildup of fluid from an impaired circulatory system and is a common side effect of Congestive Heart Failure. It would not be appropriate to discourage fruits and vegetables, as they are part of a heart healthy diet and should be encouraged. Patients with heart failure are usually put on a water regimen of around 1-2 L of fluid total per day. This is due to the increased pressure on the heart to process fluids and may cause worsening edema. Patients with heart failure need to be careful with the amount of vigorous exercise activities they undertake. Heart rate should be monitored closely to prevent overexertion.

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47 A patient has had diarrhea for the past 72 hours. Which of the symptoms would support a diagnosis of hypovolemia?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hypovolemia indicates low fluid volume within the body. Dizziness spells would be one symptom of hypovolemia due to the decreased pressure in the brain. Urine would be dark colored, not light colored, as the urine contains more byproducts and the kidneys process less fluid. An increased pulse rate would indicate hypovolemia as the heart works harder to spread the limited amount of fluid volume throughout the body. A patient would have dry mucus membranes as fluid is directed towards more vital body organs.
48 A patient is being discharged with a new diagnosis of Congestive Heart Failure. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicate understanding of the diagnosis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The patient should notify the physician if edema starts developing in the lower extremities. This indicates more pressure on the heart and can cause complications. Patients with Congestive Heart Failure need to have a limited fluid intake, typically around 2 L per day to prevent fluid overloading. The patient should be aware this includes all types of fluids, not just water. Weight gain of 3-5 lbs in one day should be reported to the physician as this is a significant weight increase and may indicate fluid retention. The patient's medications may need to be adjusted. The patient complaining of difficulty breathing at night is experiencing pulmonary edema, a condition in which fluid builds up into the lungs. This symptom should be reported to the physician immediately.
49 A patient is about to be discharged from the hospital after a diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Which of the following statements from the patient indicates the need for further nutritional teaching?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While whole grains are healthy, ham is a processed food and tends to be high in sodium. High-sodium foods should be avoided in patients with CHF. The other options show the patient understands proper dietary nutrition for patients with congestive heart failure.

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Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 

50 A patient, who weighs 200 pounds, has a prescription for a Dopamine Drip at 5 mcg/kg/min. There is 400 mg per 500 ml D5W on hand. The nurse should administer __________ milliliters to the patient each hour.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The correct answer is 34.
First, 200 lb is 90.7 kg.
Multiply the 5 mcg/min by 90.7 kg to get 453.5 mcg/min.
Multiply the 453.5 mcg/min x 60 min to get 27210 mcg/hr.
Multiply 27210 mcg/hr x 1 mg/1000 mcg to get 27.21 mg/hr.
Multiply 27.21 mg/hr x 500 ml/400 mg to get the answer of 34 ml/hr.
 
51 A patient, who weighs 143 pounds, has a prescription for Garamycin at two mg/kg, IV, every eight hours. There is 100 mg in 50 ml solution on hand. The nurse should administer ____ milliliters to the patient with each dose.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The correct answer is c.
First convert 143 lbs to 65 kg.
Multiple 65 kg x 2 mg/kg to get 130 mg q 8 hours.
Multiple 130 mg x 50ml/100mg to get 65 ml q 8 hrs.
 
52 A patient has a prescription for Tylenol at 650mg every 6 hours. A nurse only has 325mg pills of Tylenol available. How many pills would be administered every 6 hours?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
325 mg x 2 pills is equal to a total of 650 mg. Therefore, the patient should receive a maximum of 2 pills every 6 hours. It is important to verify the dosage of certain medications, such as Tylenol, to prevent overdosing a patient within a 24-hour period.

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53 The patient has only one IV site with a continuous infusion of Lactated Ringers solution. The provider has prescribed Ceftriaxone 100 mg in Normal Saline 50 ml to be given IV now. What should be the nurse's first action?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The nurse's first action after receiving the new IV medication order should be to check the Y-site compatibility of the two IV infusions. Depending upon the response, the nurse may need to start a new IV or run the medications into the same IV. In this case, the IV compatibility will show as incompatible for Lactated Ringers and Ceftriaxone, so these medications should not be run on the same IV line. If possible, the continuous infusion should not be stopped unless an IV access is obtained, or the physician gives the order to pause the continuous infusion while the antibiotic is given.
54 Which of the following lab tests would be considered Point of Care testing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A Blood Glucose would be considered a Point of Care test as the test can be completed at the bedside with the result given immediately. A Urinalysis, Sputum Culture, or Complete Metabolic Panel would not be considered Point of Care tests because these tests need to be run in a laboratory setting with specialized equipment not available at the bedside.
55 The nurse enters the room of a patient complaining of lower back pain after a left hip replacement surgery. Which non-pharmacological intervention would not be appropriate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
If possible, the patient should not be repositioned onto the side where the hip surgery took place as this may cause decreased circulation or improper healing to the hip or cause more pain to the patient. The patient can be repositioned from supine to the right side. Massage is an appropriate method for nursing staff to use in decreasing pain for the patient. It is appropriate to lower the head of the bed to elongate the patient's back. The patient's legs may be elevated to prevent swelling and pressure ulcers. The application of heat to a painful area is appropriate. It would be acceptable for the nurse to obtain a doctor's order prior to heat application.

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56 A nurse working in the telemetry unit receives a call that a patient's EKG rhythm has transitioned into Atrial Fibrillation. Which medication is the patient likely to receive long-term in relation to this diagnosis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Warfarin is a common medication given long-term in the management of Atrial Fibrillation to prevent the development of blood clot, or thromboses, that can cause blockages in the heart or lungs. Heparin, while used to prevent thrombosis in Atrial Fibrillation, is not usually administered long-term as it is an IV or Sub-cutaneous injection. Furosemide is given as a diuretic in decreasing fluid retention. It is normally given to patients with Congestive Heart Failure. Albuterol is typically a drug that is inhaled in the treatment of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Medication or Asthma as a rescue medication. It is contraindicated in Atrial Fibrillation.
57 A drug form in which medication particles are instilled into a liquid and combined through agitation of the solution is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A suspension is a type of medicine that combines medication particles with a liquid solution. When not administered, medication particles within the suspension may settle to the bottom, requiring the nurse to shake the solution to mix. Suspensions are typically given as oral solutions.
58 A nurse is educating a female client about progesterone. Which of the following information is appropriate to include in this teaching?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Progesterone is a hormone that is produced by the ovaries in women. Progesterone affects the tissue of the endometrium by developing the lining of the uterus in support of embryo implantation. In pregnant women, progesterone nourishes the uterine lining and limits uterine contractions to prevent miscarriage.

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59 A patient is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells, which was started just prior to shift change. Approximately 30 minutes after the infusion has started, the patient complains of chest pain, chills and dyspnea. The RN notes that D5W is hanging with the blood and immediately recognizes the symptoms as a hemolytic reaction. Which is the first action the nurse should take?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While the nurse may perform all of these actions after a transfusion reaction, the FIRST action should be to immediately stop the transfusion and notify the physician.
60 Which of the following is the antidote to warfarin toxicity?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Vitamin K acts to reverse the blood-thinning effects of warfarin. Calcium gluconate is the antidote to magnesium toxicity, insulin can help reverse hyperkalemia, and protamine sulfate reverses unfractionated heparin overdose.
61 A patient is receiving an insulin infusion at 2 units/hour. The most recent blood glucose is 220. The RN reviews the infusion protocol and notes the following: If Glucose 150-200 = infuse at 2 units/hour; Glucose 201-250 = infuse at 4 units/hour; Glucose 251-300 = infuse at 6 units/hour. Based on the most recent glucose reading, the nurse should increase the infusion by how many units/hour?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The glucose is 220, which falls between 201-250, thus the infusion needs to run at 4 units/hour. It is currently at 2 units/hour, so the nurse needs to increase by 2 units in order to reach the ordered rate of 4 units/hour.

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62 Protonix 20mg IV BID has been ordered for a patient and is scheduled for 0900 and 2100. The pharmacy sends a vial of Protonix that reads 40mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive for his 0900 dose?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The patient receives 20mg twice a day. The vial contains 40mg of medication per mL, thus, to give 20mg of the medication, you would give half a mL or 0.5mL.
63 Following a dose of medication, a client develops inflamed mucous membranes and nasal discharge. What type of minor reaction is this client experiencing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Rhinitis may occur as a mild reaction following some types of medication administration. Rhinitis involves itchy or inflamed mucous membranes, particularly around the eyes, nose and mouth. The client may also develop swelling of the nasal passages or clear discharge.
64 Mr. Y is receiving medication through a catheter that has been placed into the subarachnoid space of his spinal column. What route of medication administration is this called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Medications administered through the intrathecal route are given through a catheter that has been placed into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column. These medications are given into cerebrospinal fluid, often for pain control. Placement of an intrathecal catheter is typically done by a trained physician or advanced-practice nurse.

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Reduction of Risk Potential 

65 Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a client who is suffering from a fever?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Interventions for a client who is suffering from a fever include increasing the client's volume of fluid and providing oxygen. A fever increases the body's metabolism, causing the client to breathe at a faster rate and increasing the work of the heart. The client is at risk of fluid loss due to increased respiration and sweating. The increased work of the heart requires more oxygen to maintain perfusion to the tissues.
66 Which of the following complications is associated with premature rupture of membranes in the pregnant client?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Premature rupture of membranes occurs when the amniotic sac of a pregnant client has ruptured before the onset of labor. The client may be at increased risk of chorioamnionitis, which occurs as inflammation of the membranes of the placenta. Infection may develop when bacteria ascend into the uterus without the protection of the intact amniotic sac.
67 A pregnant woman has just completed her one-hour glucose screening at 26 weeks. The nurse reviews her labs and notes a value of 160. The nurse anticipates that the physician will:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
160 is considered an abnormal value for the 1-hour screening glucose. The correct follow-up is to complete the 3-hour test as this test is diagnostic for gestational diabetes.
68 A patient on a medical-surgical floor calls out, complaining of chest pain. An EKG is performed. Which of the following is considered abnormal?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A wide QRS complex is often associated with ventricular arrhythmias, such as supraventricular tachycardia.

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69 A nurse is assessing a patient who had a bowel resection. Which of the following is a concern for a surgical complication?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The distended abdomen and absent bowel sounds indicate an ileus, which is a common complication after bowel surgery. Pink incision edges and borborygmi are normal findings. Pain is expected after a surgery, and while significant pain is of concern, a pain level of 4 out of 10 is expected.
70 A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall fluid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause both fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of consciousness, or death.
71 A nurse is attempting to assess a client's pulse in his foot. She palpates the pulse on the anterior aspect of his ankle, below the lower end of the medial malleolus. Which type of pulse is this nurse taking?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The nurse can palpate the posterior tibial pulse to assess circulation to the foot and ankle. The posterior tibial pulse is felt by palpating the inner side of the ankle, behind the medial malleolus.

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72 Mrs. J is in the adult ICU on a ventilator. The nurse caring for her recognizes that her endotracheal tube needs suctioning. Based on the nurse's understanding of this procedure, what level of pressure should the nurse apply while suctioning?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, the nurse should set the suction apparatus at a level no higher than 150 mmHg, with a preferable level between 100 and 120 mmHg. Suction pressure that is too high can contribute to the client's hypoxia. Alternatively, too low of suction pressure may not clear adequate amounts of secretions.
73 The nurse caring for Mrs. J is prepared to suction her endotracheal tube. Which of the following interventions will reduce hypoxia during this procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Before suctioning a client's endotracheal tube, the nurse should provide extra oxygen for approximately 30 to 60 seconds. Hyperoxygenating a client before suctioning increases oxygen delivery to the tissues and reduces hypoxia that may develop during the procedure.
74 Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is contraindicated in clients who are morbidly obese because excess body fat makes finding essential landmarks for this procedure difficult. Additionally, the equipment used for the procedure may not be large enough to accommodate an obese person. Finally, morbid obesity puts excess strain on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, such that anesthetic agents used during the procedure could cause further complications.

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75 Which of the following would alert the nurse to respiratory distress in the newborn?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Nasal flaring and retractions indicate that the newborn is working hard to breathe. The other choices are normal findings in the newborn; acrocyanosis and circumoral cyanosis are common in the first day of life, and normal respiratory rate in a newborn is 30-60 breaths per minute.
76 A nurse is making a Home Health visit at a home of an elderly couple. The wife states regarding her husband, the patient, "He always sits in that chair all day long." Which of the following should the nurse consider the patient at risk for?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The patient is at risk for all the listed conditions related to decreased mobility. Pressure ulcers form as the skin layers break down between the chair or bed surface and bone. This may happen due to the patient remaining in one position too long. This patient may be at risk for pressure ulcers to his sacrum or areas where his leg meets the foot rest. Patients have been shown to be higher risk for Deep Vein Thrombosis with decreased mobility. The patient should ambulate multiple times a day to lower his risk for DVT. Constipation is another common side effect of decreased mobility as the GI system slows.
77 A patient is having a tonic-clonic seizure. A nurse should take which of the following steps?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Putting a pillow under the patient's head is an acceptable way to prevent injury to the patient until the seizure has completed. Putting restraints on the patient may cause further injury to the patient and will not prevent the muscles from moving. Putting a tongue blade in the patient's mouth may cause injury to the oral cavity and may cause the patient to choke. It is more appropriate to put the patient on their side as this may help to prevent aspiration as well as prevent injury to the head.

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Physiological Adaptation 

78 A nurse is changing the dressing for a post-op Bilateral Knee Amputation patient. The nurse notes the patient refuses to look at the limb while the dressing is being changed but asks the nurse about their personal life instead. Which nursing care plan should the nurse implement for the patient related to this action?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A patient with loss of limb may be experiencing Disturbed Body Image. The nurse should be sensitive to the patient's emotional and mental acceptance of the loss and incorporate therapeutic communication as the patient allows. Acceptance may take time and the patient should not be pressured into looking at the limb. The patient may be experiencing Altered Sleep Patterns related to the surgery, however the patient refusing to look at the limb indicates Disturbed Body Image. The patient remembers the limb is there and is refusing to look at it, therefore Impaired Memory does not appear to be the issue. The patient does not appear to have any issues communicating with the nurse, so the patient is more likely experiencing Disturbed Body Image related to the loss of the limb rather than Impaired Social Interaction.
79 Which of the following would be an expected finding in an age assessment of a 2 year old?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A 2 year old child should have reached certain developmental milestones. The child will be developing their vocabulary and in addition to knowing almost 300 words, will be developing 2-4 sentences. The child may start using one hand to complete tasks and favoring one hand over the other. The child may start running, as well as walking and standing on tiptoes. A child who is lagging in performing these milestones may be at risk for developmental delay and further assessment is indicated.
80 A nurse is instructing a patient on the use of a walker. Which of the following would be included in the instructions?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All responses are appropriate for the nurse to instruct the patient in the use of a walker. It is appropriate for the patient to put the body weight on their hands, or onto the walker, as this will put less pressure on the weakened leg or legs. The upper hand grips are where the patient should hold the walker, not on the front of the walker, which could cause it to tip forward, or on the middle side rails, which are too low. The patient should push off of the chair to come to a standing position, not pull the walker to stand up, as this could cause them to fall as the walker tilts back.

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Related Links

Quality starts with who wrote the material. Our writers:

Eileen Johnson, RN, MSN, is a master's prepared RN and medical writer. She had over 15 years of experience as a Certified Emergency Nurse and is a former item writer for the CEN exam.

Alene Burke, RN, MSN, is a registered nurse since 1976. She is a multidisciplinary nursing educator who has taught nurses for the last 25 years and developed college level curriculum.

Chelsea Homich, RN, MSN, is a nurse educator at the Pittsburgh Technical Institute where she teaches nursing students foundational nursing courses.

Meg Brannagan, RN, BSN, is a medical writer, specializing in courses and curriculum designed for practicing nurses. She has practiced clinical nursing and medical writing for over 12 years.

How should I study for the NCLEX-RN?

Practice tests and flash cards are an effective way to study for the NCLEX-RN exam.  They help you learn the subject matter and practice your test taking skills.  The NCLEX-RN is taken on a computer, so practicing with online practice tests can boost your chance of success. 

What is on the NCLEX-RN?

The NCLEX-RN licensing exam has 85 to 150 multiple-choice questions and five hours is given to take the exam. It covers the following categories:
  • Management of Care
  • Safety and Infection Control
  • Health Promotion and Maintenance
  • Psychological Integrity
  • Physiological Integrity
  • Basic Care and Comfort
  • Pharmacological and Parental Therapies.
  • Reduction of Risk Potential
  • Physiological Adaptation
Some of the questions will be in a case study format.
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