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General Operation of a Real Estate Brokerage 

1 With regard to the general operation of a real estate brokerage, which of the following activities of ABC Brokerage, Inc. is illegal under federal law?

Statement #1: ABC Brokerage, Inc. advertises that, at the close of escrow, it will refund $500 of the commission to every buyer and seller the firm represents.

Statement #2: While golfing together, the managing licensees at ABC Brokerage, Inc. and DEF Brokerage, Inc. divide up a particular geographic area between themselves.

Statement #3: ABC Brokerage, Inc. lays off a long-term licensee who, because of illness, performed poorly during the last two fiscal quarters.
 
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dividing up territories with another brokerage would be considered collusion, a violation of the federal Sherman Antitrust Act. The Sherman Antitrust Act was enacted by the federal government in 1890 as consumer protection legislation designed to encourage competition. Dividing up geographic territories, fixing commission rates or fees, or boycotting brokerage firms with cut-rate commissions would all be considered brokerage business activities that violate this federal law.

A is legal. As long as it is properly disclosed, refunding a portion of the commission to clients at the close of escrow is not in violation of federal law. C is legal. A brokerage firm is a business, and laying off unproductive staff is a necessary part of any ongoing business operation.

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2 A real estate broker should educate clients to protect the client's best interests and ensure a knowledgeable negotiating position. However, client education involves a certain amount of risk, because whatever information the broker (or salesperson in the firm) conveys must be accurate and reliable. With regard to managing the risk associated with client education, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The law of agency will inevitably require that the agent educate the client about material facts and about the art of negotiating to ensure a strong negotiating position. The idea that an agent can avoid discovery for fear that discovering facts will increase the burden of disclosure, and increase the agent's obligation to educate the client is not correct. The duty of agency requires discovery; and the duty of disclosure requires that the agent educate the client about all known facts; or all facts the agent should have discovered.
3 Consider why a brokerage experiences financial difficulty even in prosperous times. One of the main reasons financial difficulty for a brokerage occurs is that the broker fails to stay abreast of the economic climate and direction of the real estate market. With regard to financial planning for a real estate brokerage, which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

Statement #1: Even in prosperous times, the economic climate changes daily. Brokerages need to plan expenditures based on factual assessment of the economic climate.

Statement #2: The competitors may reduce commission levels, and thus to compete, a brokerage may need to reduce commission levels within the firm.

Statement #3: Advertising is vital to the success of a brokerage. A broker should take advantage of all products designed to promote real estate sales.

 
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Like all businesses, brokerages need income and cash flow. Many people believe brokerages encounter financial problems only when interest rates rise or when there is increased competition. This is not the case. Brokerages are not profit centers. A brokerage is nothing more than a funnel--the medium through which commissions are paid to the salespersons and brokers affiliated with the brokerage. A brokerage that is poorly run will encounter financial difficulty even in the friendliest real estate climate. To say that the broker should take advantage of all products designed to promote real estate sales is not correct. A brokerage should use such products only after the brokerage has evaluated its financial position, and planned for the advertising costs.

Agency Concepts and Managerial Duties 

4 A _____ agency particularly exists when there is a delegation of authority to do a single act.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A person authorized by his principal to execute a particular deed, or to sign a particular contract, or to procure a purchaser for certain real estate, is a special agent. Listing agents are special agents. If an agent has several listings with one seller, that agent is a special agent several times. Several listings with one client do not constitute a general agency.

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5 Legally, what is the nature of agency relationships between listing brokers and sellers?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Specific agency (or special agency) means that a licensee may act on a principal's behalf only in limited ways for a limited time; generally for only one transaction. General agency is an agency whereby the agent is given authorization to act as agent for a range of activities. Universal agency is unlimited rights to act on the principal's behalf. A limited power of attorney grants authority to act on the principal's behalf, but limits the authorization to only those acts that are named.
6 A legally-competent, wealthy investor is selling a large commercial property. The 35-year-old investor is represented by one of the busiest, most successful brokerage firms in the state. The closing date for the transaction coincides with an important overseas business trip the investor cannot postpone or cancel. Prior to leaving on the business trip, the investor executes a document authorizing a trusted friend to sign all documents related to the sale of the commercial property. After accepting the appointment, the investor's friend owes fiduciary duties to the investor. Of the following choices, what is the name of the document executed by the investor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The document the investor executed was a Power of Attorney (POA). A properly executed POA authorizes an agent (called an attorney-in-fact) to act in place of the principal. An attorney-in-fact owes fiduciary duties (e.g., duty of disclosure, duty of obedience, duty of confidentiality, duty of care, etc.) to the principal. Here, the principal is the wealthy investor and the attorney-in-fact is the trusted friend. Note: An attorney-in-fact does not need to be an attorney.

A is incorrect. A listing agreement is a contract between a licensee and the seller of a parcel of real estate. This agreement authorizes the licensee to act on behalf of the seller to sell the property. The wealthy investor would have entered into a listing agreement with the brokerage firm. Test-Taking Tip: Note the difference between what an agent can do under a listing agreement and what an attorney-in-fact can do under a POA. The agent under a listing agreement acts "on behalf" of the seller to sell the property, and the agent does that in expectation of a commission or fee. Listing Agent activities might include things like marketing the property, staging the property, and soliciting offers for the property. However, the agent's authority would not typically include an activity like accepting an offer for the property and binding the principal. In contrast, an attorney-in-fact acts "in place" of the principal, and rarely expects any type of compensation or fee. So, provided the POA authorizes the activity, the attorney-in-fact could accept an offer, bind the principal, and sign all the documents related to the transfer of the property. B is incorrect. A Purchase and Sale Agreement is the contract the seller would enter into with a buyer for the purchase of the property. D is incorrect. A conservatorship (in some states this is called a "guardianship") is created through the legal system when an individual is unable to manage his or her healthcare decisions and/or financial affairs. The judge appoints--and monitors--a person selected to act on behalf of the incompetent individual.

Contracts and Contract Law 

7 Which of the following lists the essential elements of an enforceable real estate contract?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An enforceable contract is a voluntary agreement between competent parties to do something legal. Any party bringing an action for breach of contract must provide evidence that an offer was made, that it was accepted and that both parties offered consideration. The terms "mutuality", or "mutual consent" are synonymous with offer and acceptance. Although signatures are required on all contracts for the sale and purchase of real estate according to the statute of frauds, they are not required on all real estate contracts. An exception to the statute of frauds requirement is leases for a period of one year or less.

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8 A listing agreement did not include an authorization to accept a deposit. Which of the following is correct?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
If the scope of authority of a real estate broker is limited to just producing a buyer, the broker does not have the authority to collect an earnest deposit on behalf of the seller. When an agent does collect a deposit in this case, the agent is acting as agent for the buyer (offeror) and not the seller.

Real Property Characteristics 

9 Which of the following is considered personal property?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A deed is personal property, even though it is proof of ownership of real property. Personal property is movable property. Since a deed is movable, it is considered personal property.

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10 Homeowner Howard's home was foreclosed. Understandably, Howard was quite upset, and just before he was ordered to vacate the home, he removed all of the plumbing fixtures, lighting fixtures and built-in appliances from the home. When Howard's lender listed the property for sale, the listing agent realized that the fixtures had been removed. What is the act of removing the fixtures from the home called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Severance is the act of removing or cutting off a part of the real property that is attached to the land. Since the lender is foreclosing on the real property, and the fixtures are considered real property, the lender is entitled to receive the home with all of the fixtures intact. Removal of the fixtures from the home in the manner described in the scenario is a tort violation against the lender, and is subject to civil action, although in most cases it is not financially prudent for the lender to pursue such action because the litigation costs can be greater than the lenders financial loss from the damages.

Water Law 

11 The rights of a landowner whose property line touches on a lake or non-navigable river are called _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Riparian rights are the rights of an abutting owner to his/her fair share of water flowing past the land. A waterfront owner does not own the water, and does not own the land under the water. The landowner simply owns a right to access to the water.

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12 Which of the following correctly defines the doctrine of prior appropriation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In states where water is scarce, a form of prior appropriation applies. Also known as first in time is first in right, the doctrine grants water rights to divert a specific amount of water from a specific source to irrigate a specific piece of property. Those rights are then assigned a priority based on when the right was first used or applied for. In periods of peak demand, the person or entity whose claim is the oldest is given the first right to the water.

Freehold Estates 

13 The lessee of an apartment and the owner of a condominium have many things in common. Which of the following is true for both?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Although the living arrangements and the structure of the buildings might look similar, the only thing a lessee of an apartment and the owner of a condominium have in common is that they each have an estate in real property. A condo owner has a fee interest (which is a freehold estate). The lessee has a less-than-freehold estate. Depending on how the condo owner holds title, his estate might also be an estate of inheritance.
14 When Evan and Camelia decided to buy a home in Deer Run subdivision, they were required to take title to the home under certain covenants, conditions and restrictions (CC&Rs). Their real estate agent explained to them that during the term of their ownership, they must comply with the CC&Rs or they would lose their ownership. Their estate was a _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Estates that can be "defeated" are called fee simple defeasible estates. CC&Rs are called "conditions subsequent", which means that they are conditions that must be met subsequent to taking title. Evan and Camelia's agent acted correctly when she warned them about the consequences of non-compliance before they signed the contract.

Holding and Transferring Title 

15 Severalty ownership _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Severalty ownership is ownership by a single person. There is only one person or entity's name on the deed. There is no right of survivorship with a severalty ownership, because a person with right of survivorship must be named on the deed. For a survivor of a severalty owner to obtain title upon the death of the severalty owner, the severalty owner must devise the property to the survivor in a will.

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16 Sisters Amanda, Beatrice, and Constance Smith purchased a commercial building from Steven. The deed specified as grantees simply as "Amanda Smith, Beatrice Smith, and Constance Smith" but did not specify the tenancy created. The three sisters are _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A conveyance to two or more persons is presumed to create a tenancy in common unless a contrary intention is shown. Each tenant holds an individual undivided ownership in the property, which means that each owner has absolute rights over his/her share; and can alienate, or transfer the ownership of, her ownership interest without the consent of the other parties.

Environmental Law 

17 A real estate licensee has out-of-town relatives come to visit. He shows them several listings, but they simply are not interested in purchasing any of the listings he shows them. Finally, after several long days of viewing listings, the licensee writes up a lease proposal with an option to purchase. The licensee should make a disclosure to _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The prospective purchase of the property by a person related to the licensee by blood or marriage must be disclosed to all parties to the transaction. In this case, the listing broker and the listing salesperson are not parties to the lease option transaction. The lease option is a contract that is between the lessee/optionee and the lessor/optionor. Failure to make this disclosure would be considered a violation of the agent's duty to disclose all material facts. Although the disclosure that is made to the lessor/optionor will certainly be seen by the listing salesperson's and listing broker's eyes, the disclosure is not directed specifically at the listing agents.
18 When an environmental hazard such as mold exists on a subject property, a typical remedy to cure the defect is abatement of the defect. All of the following correctly define the term "abatement" EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Abatement of a nuisance means the elimination, whether by the party injured, or through suit instituted by him, of that which endangers life or health, or interferes with the use and enjoyment of the property. The law allows an injured party to remove or destroy the nuisance personally, providing he does so without unnecessary destruction or breach of the peace. Although abatement must be done in an environmentally friendly manner, no special court order is necessary before abatement can ensue.

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Land Descriptions 

19 Which of the following is the method of legal description that uses carefully measured distances, angles and directions to define the boundaries of a parcel of real estate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The metes and bounds method of legal description is the primary method of legal description in many states. In states where it is not the primary system, it is used to supplement the prevailing description method. Typically the metes and bounds system uses physical features of the property (called monuments), to identify aspects of the topography; and it uses directions and distances, to define the boundaries of the parcel. The description is written in a running prose style, and works around the parcel in sequence from a point of beginning. It may include references to other adjoining parcels (and their owners), and it, in turn, could also be referred to in later surveys. At the time the description is compiled, it may have been marked on the ground with man-made monuments placed where there were no suitable natural monuments.
20 Which of the following correctly defines the term "baseline"?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The baseline is the starting point of latitude for all sectioned land within a given survey area. It divides the survey area into the north half and the south half. The baseline is perpendicular to a principal meridian; and the point at which the two lines intersect is called the initial point. Many communities in the United States have roads that run along survey baselines; these roads not coincidentally are named "Baseline Road".

Development and Construction 

21 Which model of city planning and development is defined by a central business district in the middle of the model, with the city expanding in rings with different land uses?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The concentric ring model basically consists of zoning classifications in circles, with the central business district in the center. The next circle is the transition zone of mixed residential and commercial uses. Next is the inner city zone or inner suburbs. The better quality (middle class) homes surround the inner city; and the outermost circle is called the commuter zone.

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22 Which model of land development is based on the theory that even though a city may have begun with a central business district (CBD), other smaller CBDs develop on the outskirts of the city near the more valuable housing areas to allow shorter commutes from the outskirts of the city?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The multiple nuclei model of land development creates other nodes or nuclei in the city in addition to the CBD; thus the name multiple nuclei model. The model originated from the idea that people have greater movement due to increased car ownership. This increase of movement allows for the specialization of regional centers or zoning classifications.
23 Housing Plus, Inc. operates in multiple states and specializes in construction of Accessory Dwelling Units (ADU) as permitted by state or local law. The company primarily assists those owners of dwellings in existing subdivisions that are sufficiently spacious to qualify for the addition of an ADU. Home owners typically add an ADU for the enhanced rental potential the units add to residential real estate. But Housing Plus, Inc. also occasionally assists public entities that respond to local housing needs by building on small plots of underdeveloped land in established subdivisions. Which of the following describes the work of Housing Plus, Inc.?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The work of Housing Plus, Inc. can best be described as infill development. Infill typically refers to improvements built on underdeveloped land or in between existing improvements. Infill development, as it pertains to residential properties, is frequently referred to as either housing infill (e.g., adding additional residential units to existing lots, or dividing existing dwellings into multiple units) or suburban infill (e.g., building on any remaining unimproved land in existing subdivisions). Test-Taking Tip: Urban infill development (aka "land recycling") is a term used to describe redevelopment of blighted city areas through either construction on vacant land or reconstruction of obsolete improvements.

B is incorrect. Greenfield development is growth on the periphery of an established subdivision that develops land previously dedicated to open space or agriculture. C is incorrect. Brownfield development is redevelopment on a site previously polluted by a prior, usually industrial, use. D is incorrect. Commercial development typically refers to real estate developed specifically to produce income (e.g., offices, apartment buildings, shopping centers, etc.).

Tax Implications on Real Estate 

24 Mr. Carpenter, a single man age 50, sells his personal residence for $600,000. He originally purchased it 9 years ago for $550,000. What portion of the sales proceeds is taxable?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mr. Carpenter can realize a profit of up to $250,000 and not pay tax on the profit. The exemption is $250,000 for single persons and $500,000 for married people who file joint returns. The exemption requires that the property must be the seller's primary residence for two of the last five years.

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25 The adjusted basis of a taxpayer's residence would be _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Depreciation cannot be taken on a personal residence. It can be taken only for investment property. The adjusted basis would be cost plus capital improvements. However, for investment property, the adjusted basis would be cost plus improvements minus depreciation.
26 Two people, an investor and a business property owner, want to sell their properties to each other in a 1031 exchange. The investor owns a 10 acre parcel improved with an office building. The business property owner owns a parcel of real estate improved with an apartment building. Here is the government survey system legal description for the realty owned by the business property owner: "The Northeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 10..." The area described in this legal description is standard for the government survey system. Both properties have the same value, and neither property is encumbered with liens. Which of the following is a correct statement?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Section 1031 of the United States Internal Revenue Code states that realized gain from real estate will not be recognized at the time of the exchange. The 1031 exchange (aka "1031 like-kind exchange") allows owners of business or investment real property to defer capital gains taxes on the properties being exchanged. This is a tax deferral, not a tax foregiveness: The capital gains taxes owed will typically be due when the new property is sold.

A is incorrect. A like-kind exchange is real property used for business, trade, or investment purposes. The exchange of an office building for an apartment building falls within this category. B is incorrect for two reasons. First, both properties are the same size (i.e., 10 acres). Secondly, boot is owed, not if one property is smaller than the other, but if one property is less valuable than the other. The test question stated that both properties have the same value and are not encumbered. Therefore, no boot will be owed. Test-Taking Tip: "Boot" is what the owner of the less valuable property pays the owner of the more valuable property in order to make the exchange even. Boot is taxable to the person receiving it, and in the year received. C is incorrect. A personal residence cannot be used in a 1031 tax-deferred exchange, no matter how high its market value.

Federal Law 

27 The maximum commission a broker may charge for the sale of residential property is _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The Sherman Anti-Trust Act prohibits price fixing. Therefore, a state real estate law that sets the maximum commission that a broker may charge for the sale of residential property would be against public policy. All real estate listing commissions must be negotiable between seller and the listing broker, so the commission rate is determined by the broker's contract with his principal.

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28 _____ are agreements between competitors to divide the market geographically, by price range, type of property, or some other segmentation. These types of agreements are considered anti-competitive because they conspire to establish dominance in a particular market.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The essence of the anti-trust laws is that businesses cannot agree to restrain trade. Any statement or agreement that limits consumer choice could be construed as an anti-trust violation. If two separate brokerages agree to divide a market along geographic lines, this is a violation. However, within a brokerage, it is acceptable for a brokerage to assign specific agents to certain geographic areas. This is legal, because the agents within a brokerage are not competitors. They are working on behalf of the brokerage.

Leases and Leasehold Estates 

29 If one uses the words "of definite duration" to describe a lease, it is most likely a(n) _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An estate for years is an estate with a definite commencement date and a definite termination date. An estate for years does not have to be literally for years; it can be of a duration that is less than one year, such as a six-month lease. Estates for years with a duration of one year or more must be in writing to be enforceable; but estates for years with a duration of less than one year do not need to be in writing to be enforceable.
30 A month-to-month lease is considered _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A periodic tenancy has no definite termination date. It continues from period to period until one of the parties gives notice of termination; and automatically renews at the end of the lease term for the same lease term. For instance, a month-to-month lease automatically renews at the end of the month; and the renewed lease term is one month. Most states provide that the party giving notice must do so no less than a certain amount of days before the end of the lease term to prevent auto-renewal.

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Appraisal 

31 The "Statement of Purpose" section of a narrative appraisal report would contain which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A statement of purpose in any form or research documentation simply states the reasons for the research; and the type of research conducted. In a Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), the statement of purpose states the method of appraisal approach. It tells the lender what type of property is being appraised, as well as provides insight as to the purpose of the borrower. For instance, if a single family residence is being sold to a borrower who will use the property for investment purposes, the appraiser will likely use the income approach to value, and the structure of the loan package is based partly on the borrower's purpose. On the other hand, if the same single family residence is being purchased by a borrower who plans to use the home for a primary residence, the appraiser will likely use the sales comparison approach, and the loan package is customized to that borrower's purpose.
32 Where in the range of market value, from low to high end, is a listing price likely to fall?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The listing price set by the owner usually sets the upper limit of market value under normal market conditions. A prospective buyer's first offer usually sets the lower limit. In some cases, sellers have overinflated expectations about the market value of their home, and want a list price that is way above market value. There are brokers who will sign such an over-priced listing, but such an act is not generally in the broker's best interest because the property is not likely to sell; and a listing is a liability for the broker until it sells.

Financing 

33 With regard to lien theory versus title theory, which of the following statements is FALSE? Statement #1: In some states, the borrower who finances the purchase of property hypothecates title to a property and does not actually keep title to the property during the term of the loan. States that employ this custom are lien theory states. Statement #2: In some states, the borrower who finances the purchase of property holds both actual title and equitable title to a property during the term of the loan, and the lender's interest is secured with a deed of trust. These states are title theory states. Statement #3: In some states, the seller gives title to the buyer, and the buyer/borrower then signs a deed of trust which conveys only naked title to a trustee; and the lender is the beneficiary in the deed of trust. These states are lien theory states.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Statement #1 describes the arrangement for title theory states. Statement #2 describes the arrangement for lien theory states. In lien theory states, the buyer owns the property and has all real property rights therein; and the lender has a lien. In title theory states, the borrower hypothecates to the lender. (In other words the buyer/borrower makes his/her title hypothetical.) It is the lender that holds actual title during the term of the loan.
34 A lender uses an impound account to protect against non-payment of all of the following EXCEPT _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Loan interest is part of the loan payment. The others types of payments are held by the lender in a reserve account called impounds. The lender pays these bills to the various providers as they become due.

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35 Mr. James Abioye and Mrs. Catherine Abioye have been married for 30 years. James just turned 63-years-old, and recently retired because of health issues. Catherine is 59-years-old, and is still working as a Surgical RN. Several decades ago, they jointly purchased—and currently own—a single parcel of real estate, their primary residence. There is a substantial amount of equity in the home, and it is free and clear of all liens, except current year taxes. Now that Catherine is the only spouse still working, the married couple is looking for real estate financing that will allow them to remain in their home and support their lifestyle. The Abioyes found one loan product that would support their goals, but were warned by the lender that the loan amount would be lower than they anticipated because of Catherine's age. When, if ever, is this accurate advice on the part of a lender? 
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Per federal law, a reverse mortgage is only available to home owners who are 62-years-old or older, and who have substantial equity in their homes. The reverse mortgage (aka the “senior reverse mortgage” or the “reverse annuity mortgage”) converts the equity in the home into a liquid asset so that borrowers are able to remain in their homes, while paying their expenses. The loan product is called a “reverse” mortgage because repayment is not required until a specific event occurs. Specific events include, for example, the death of the borrower, the borrower going to live in an assisted living facility, or the property being sold. Because there is no repayment until one of these events occur, unpaid interest is added to the principal and the loan debt grows (i.e., negative amortization). Here, because Catherine Abioye is only 59-years-old, she is too young for a reverse mortgage. Provided she qualifies in other ways, however, she will be considered a non-borrowing spouse and the reverse mortgage loan amount available to the Abiuoyes will be based upon her age.

A is incorrect. Senior housing is unrelated to reverse mortgage, age-related loan limits. Note: There are two types of senior housing recognized under federal law.  While there are other policies and procedures which must be satisfied, age-related criteria for senior housing are as follows: There is a “62+ exemption” and a “55+ exemption.” For the 62+ exemption, all residents must be 62 years of age or older. Certain caregivers and maintenance staff are exempted from this rule. For the 55+ exemption, 80% of the housing units must be occupied by at least one person who is 55-years-old or older. B is incorrect. Under the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act, it is unlawful to discriminate against a legally and mentally competent credit applicant on the basis of age. Here, however Catherine Abioye is not a credit applicant because she is too young, per federal rules, to apply for a reverse mortgage. D is incorrect. Per federal law, reverse mortgage borrowers must be 62-years-old or older. A younger, non-borrowing spouse will lower the loan maximum available to borrow. 
36 The federal Truth in Lending Act (TILA), gives certain borrowers the right to cancel their new loans. This is called "a 3-day right of rescission." Which of the following borrowers has a right of rescission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A borrower refinancing a mortgage with a different lender has a 3-day right of rescission under TILA. Other loans where the borrower typically has a right of rescission include home equity loans and home equity lines of credit. Test-Taking Tip: Frequently, when two choices are so close as Answer Choices "C" and "D," this is what the examiners are testing.
A, B, and C are incorrect. None of these borrowers would have a 3-day right of rescission under TILA.

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37 Seller sold buyer a single-family residence for a purchase price of $1,000,000. Buyer made a down payment of $100,000, and financed the rest of the purchase with an $800,000 purchase money mortgage from a major institutional lender, and a $100,000 seller carryback. One month after the close of escrow, buyer took out a third loan, a home equity line of credit (HELOC), for $10,000. Several years later, buyer decided to refinance the $800,000 purchase money mortgage, and found a different lender willing to refinance the property on better terms. Buyer does not want to pay off either of the two junior liens on the property (i.e., the $100,000 seller carryback and the $10,000 HELOC). There is a boilerplate clause in the recorded HELOC stating the lender's consent to remain in junior position should the primary mortgage ever be refinanced. However, there is no comparable language in the $100,000 seller carryback mortgage. What is the name of the document needed to protect the lien priority of the refinance lender, and who is required to sign this document?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The $100,000 seller carryback mortgage turned the seller into a junior lienholder on the property. Because the seller is now a junior lender on the property, and the primary loan is being refinanced, the seller's signature will be required on the Subordination Agreement. Why? A Subordination Agreement is a document in which an existing lender agrees to subordinate (i.e., lower) the priority of an existing loan in favor of a new loan. Lien priority is critical to lenders because, in the event of some type of borrower default like foreclosure, senior liens are paid from sale proceeds before junior liens. Typically, lien priority is determined by the chronological date and time of recording. What a Subordination Agreement does is to adjust lien priority artificially, making a new loan senior to an older loan. Note: A Subordination Agreement (a separate document) or a Subordination Clause (a clause in the boilerplate language of a mortgage) ultimately benefits borrowers, allowing them to refinance senior loans without having to pay off junior loans.
A is incorrect for two reasons. Buyers or borrowers do not sign Subordination Agreements. A Subordination Agreement is signed by a senior lienholder, willing to subordinate lien priority to a new lender. Secondly, the $800,000 loan will be paid off during the refinance, and the lien will be removed from title. The refinance lender would not normally be concerned with losing lien priority to this lender. C is incorrect. Per the test question, there is already language in the recorded HELOC mortgage stating that the lender consents to remaining in junior position if the senior mortgage were ever refinanced. There is no need for the HELOC lender to sign another agreement. D is incorrect. There is no "Seniority Preservation Agreement." Test-Taking Tip: It's important to read through a comprehensive, up-to-date real estate glossary prior to your broker's state exam. It will help you identify those instances where the examiners are trying to trick you with made-up terms and expressions.

Investment Real Estate 

38 The monthly net income on an investment of $315,000, if the rate of return is 12 ½ percent, is _____. (Round your answer to the nearest dollar)
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The steps in this calculation are as follows: Step One: Calculate the annual net income based on a capitalization rate of 12 ½ percent. Multiply the investment (315,000) by .125 = 39,375 annual income. Step Two: Calculate the monthly income by dividing the annual income by 12: 39,375 ÷ 12 = $3,821 monthly income.

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39 Donna Trumply, an investor, has approximately one million dollars to invest; and wants to choose an investment with at least a 12% rate of return. Donna's financial advisor tells her that based in the forecasts; she could realize a rate of return of up to 11% if she invests in gold bullion or 9% if she invests in a certain mutual funds. Donna calls real estate broker Ben to discuss the possibility of investing her money in real estate. Broker Ben knows of a 5-unit office building that is listed for $715,000; and generates an annual gross income of $79,680, with an annual operating and maintenance cost of $15,320. Ben believes he can negotiate a purchase price for Donna that, if accepted, will enable Donna to meet her desired 12% rate of return on her money over the next ten years – even if Donna must pay a 4% commission to Ben. The maximum purchase price Ben should negotiate for Donna is _____. (Round all calculations to the nearest penny.)
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The steps in this calculation are as follows: Step One: Calculate the annual net income for the property by subtracting the annual operating expenses from the annual gross income: $79,680 - $15,320 = $64,360. Step Two: Calculate the purchase price that Donna should pay based on a 12% rate of return and an annual net income of $64,360: $64,360 ÷ 12% = $536,333.33 Step Three: Calculate the dollar amount Donna should pay if she pays a 4% commission to Ben. Your mathematical question is: What number, when added to 4% of itself would equal 536,333.33? P x 1.04 = $536,333.33 $536333.33 ÷ 1.04 = $ 515,705.13 (rounded) Conclusion: The maximum purchase price Donna can pay to realize a 12% capitalization rate is $515,705.13.

Settlement 

40 At close of escrow, a buyer/borrower's closing costs will include interest on the loan that accrues from _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Lenders usually require borrowers to pay the interest that accrues from the date of settlement to the end of the month. In the majority of loan agreements, the first monthly payment is due on the first day of the second month after the close of escrow. For instance, if close of escrow takes place on June 10, it is likely that the first loan payment will be due on August 1. This means that the borrower's closing costs will include interest on the loan from June 10 through June 30. Since interest is paid monthly and in arrears, the interest for July 1 through July 31 is paid with the August 1 payment.

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41 The _____ customarily pays the fees for legally recording the new note and deed of trust or mortgage.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The buyer usually pays the fees for recordation of the note and deed of trust or mortgage, although this is a negotiation point of the transaction. In a strong buyer's market, sellers might be willing to pay this fee. However, in the absence of an agreement otherwise, the buyer is required to pay this fee as a condition of the loan.