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1 Hypersensitivity of a root lessens as the tooth forms which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cementum is the thin, hard dentinal tissue layer that covers the roots of a tooth. Cellular cementum is associated with the apical half of the root that extends onto the inner wall of the pulp canal; the pulp supplies the nerve endings of the tooth. The cellular cementum must form to reduce the hypersensitivity of a root. Another plausible answer is enamel, as enamel is the hard outer layer covering the crown of the tooth. However, the keyword here is root: Enamel protects the crown of the tooth, whereas cellular cementum protects the root. The periodontal ligament does not serve to protect at all; its purpose is for attachment. It is the tissue between the tooth and the bone that holds the tooth in place.
 

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2 What nerve supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All intrinsic muscles of the tongue are innervated by the Hypoglossal (CN XII) Nerve. “Glossal” is derived from the Latin word for tongue “glossa,” so this derivative can be used to remember that words associated with the tongue will have “glossal” in them. Glossopharyngeal also relates to the tongue, but is the nerve that regulates swallowing, as glossopharyngeal refers to both the mouth and the throat (pharyngeal/pharynx) along with the tongue. The Trochlear nerve is one of the cranial nerves that functions to control eye movement. The Trigeminal nerve is the nerve most commonly talked about in dentistry as it is the nerve that is responsible for transmitting sensory, motor, and other stimuli to the head and neck, but it does not supply the intrinsic muscles of the tongue.
3 Which of the following is the most radioresistant?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Neurons are non-proliferating cells. Non-proliferating cells are more resistant to radiation than proliferating cells. Glands, reproductive organs, bone marrow, and skin all have proliferating cells, making these structures all radiosensitive.
 
4 Fluoride is typically introduced in all of the following ways except by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fluoride is not available as an injectable supplement. Fluoride is commonly found in toothpaste and mouthwash, as well as ingestible vitamins for children. Another plausible answer may have been drinking water as fluoride is not in all available water, such as well water, but fluoride was added into most drinking water as a Public Health Service in 1945. 

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5 Gingivitas is considered controlled when:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bleeding is the number one sign of gingivitis, as it occurs as an immune response due to localized irritants around the gums (plaque, food debris, etc.) Receding gums and deep pocketing may be a sign of gingivitis but in the context of this question, it are not the correct answer. A patient may have gums that do not reach the crown of the tooth but are healthy and stable. Once the gingiva starts to recede, it will not come back to its original position along the crown. Also, a deep pocket is usually a sign of gingivitis/periodontitis, but it can occur without either condition, such as when a tooth has a fracture in one of its roots. The gums may be completely healthy otherwise, but a clinician may record a localized 8-9mm pocket if a root fracture is present.
6 A flat stone may be used to sharpen a curette by hand. The face of the curette should be at what angle to the stone?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The face of the curette should be at a 100-110 degree angle to properly access the cutting edge of the curette. Insufficient angulation can alter the contour of the curette which can cause the instrument to weaken and dull quickly and potentially become unsafe for scaling.
7 Radiographic intensifying screens are used for:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Intensifying screens use light to produce photons needed for the x-ray. This reduces mAs needed to produce a specific density. They also reduce blur and exposure time, all of which reduces patient dose significantly, as it minimizes the potential for retakes.

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8 After an outbreak of herpetic gingivostomatitis, the herpes simplex virus may remain dormant in which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Herpetic gingivostomatitis (also known as “cold sores”) is an infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (specifically type 1 or HSV-1). Neurons in the sacral ganglia are the site of all types of herpes simplex virus latency. 
9 Which of the following is the most significant characteristic of an overdenture?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A denture is a dental prosthesis used to replace missing teeth and restore a patient's dentition. A full denture is a removable dental prosthesis used when no natural teeth remain. An overdenture is a dental prosthesis that is attached to remaining natural teeth or dental implants, that is typically fixed or permanent. It could be used with an overbite or underbite and therefore could be a characteristic of an overdenture, however it is not ideal as this is not the preferred occlusion, and ideally corrected prior to needing any dental prosthesis. While these characteristics are not wrong, they are not the most significant. The main feature/characteristic of an overdenture is that in can be placed in conjunction with remaining natural teeth. 
10 A dental carie is another name for:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dental caries is the dental terminology used to describe tooth decay, also known as a cavity. The term originates from the Latin word for decay, which is “caries.” 

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11 Which of the following is one of the main reasons for a root canal?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A root canal is needed when the pulp within a tooth becomes infected with deep decay, or when the pulp cannot be fixed. Other plausible answers are when the tooth is cracked and when a cavity is present. It is true that a cavity is likely present, but the key concept here is that the cavity needs to be deep within the pulp in order for a root canal to be indicated. Also, a crack or fracture in the tooth may indicate the need for a root canal, but again, a root canal is the indicated treatment if the crack is deep enough into the crown of the tooth where it permeates into the pulp and cannot be treated with a simple restoration or crown.
 
12 Vital whitening is performed on which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The keyword here is “vital;” a vital tooth is a live tooth, or a tooth with a live nerve. It is important to note that a patient should not whiten a tooth with a cavity as the bleaching component in a whitening solution can cause more damage to the already demineralized carious lesion. 
13 A vasoconstrictor does which of the following when used in conjunction with Lidocaine?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Local anesthetics are used to numb a localized area before a procedure to ensure patient comfortability. Local anesthetics cause dilation of blood vessels in the surrounding area which causes the anesthetic to be absorbed or spread quickly into the bloodstream. The use of a vasoconstrictor constricts the blood vessels which keeps the anesthetic in the localized area for a longer period of time, hence making the numbness last longer. It does not help the drug resist breaking down; breaking down would be incorrect terminology here. It stops absorption of the drug into the bloodstream. A vasoconstrictor does help the drug get into the bloodstream and help the numbing drug work (choices a and b), however the two main purposes of a vasoconstrictor are to help reduce bleeding and to prolong the duration of the anesthetic. It prolongs the duration of the anesthetic by delaying absorption into the bloodstream. Bleeding reduction is not a listed choice, so the best answer here would be choice e.

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14 When a periapical abscess forms, it indicates what?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An abscess indicates the presence of infection. A periapical abscess refers to the infection in the root of a tooth. A root canal is the indicated treatment once the root is infected, or dead/dying. Gum infections do not lead to a periapical abscess. An individual can present with gingivitis or even periodontitis and never experience a periapical abscess as a gum infection is typically superficial. Thinning of tooth enamel will not lead to a periapical abscess. Teeth are constantly experiencing wear and tear and may slowly break down or thin over time. This can lead to sensitivity issues, but likely will not lead to an abscess. Answer C is a plausible choice as a cavity could lead to an abscess if it becomes so deep it reaches the pulp/the roots, but this is not the best answer as a simple cavity can be restored and will not lead to a periapical abscess. Plaque build-up can lead to gum irritation or even a gum infection, but as stated before, it is unlikely to cause an abscess. If a periapical abscess is formed, it indicates that something significant is going on with the root of the tooth. For any periapical condition, think “root”.
15 If a dentist is placing a bonded filling, she will do which of the following to ensure the filling bonds to the tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The process of etching a tooth needs to be completed in order for the material of the bonded filling to adhere to the enamel. Etch is composed of an acid gel that demineralizes and roughens the enamel so that the filling material can bond to the tooth. All of the answers listed above are steps in the procedure of filling or restoring a tooth, but when referring to the process of bonding specifically, etching the tooth is the specific step necessary to ensure the filling bonds to the tooth.
16 A pedicle graft uses a flap of tissue from which part of the mouth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A pedicle graft utilizes the tissue from the gingiva surrounding the tooth indicating the need for a graft, as the cells and composition of the tissue are the same, providing optimal success of adherence of the graft. This type of grafting is preferred for small areas needing grafting, as it doesn't cut off blood flow and has a high success rate. Another plausible answer as it is the most common method, is obtaining tissue from the roof of the mouth. This is called a free gingival graft however, and is used for larger areas needing grafting and extra support, such as the entire row of mandibular anteriors rather than one individual tooth where a pedicle graft can be utilized. 

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17 Where does the bone for a bone augmentation typically come from in an implantation procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Similarly to pedicle grafting, bone augmentation for implantation procedures comes from the chin or ramus as the cells in the bone are the same and are more likely to accept the implant following surgery. Another plausible answer would be the hip, as bone for other bone grafts of the body typically come from the iliac crest, or hip area. For dental bone grafts, the bone will be taken from the chin or jaw however. 
18 A veneer will correct all of the following except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Veneers are similar to crowns (also known as caps) in that they are shells attached to teeth typically treatment planned for cosmetic purposes on anterior teeth, specifically maxillary anterior teeth. Veneers are a great solution to improve slightly crooked teeth, chipped teeth, to make teeth of different lengths uniform, and can even assist with closing gaps between teeth. If the tooth treatment planned for a veneer has an existing cavity, the cavity would be treated prior to the veneer being placed. 
19 Patients should give informed consent to all dental procedures. Which of the following is not a part of informed consent?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Obtaining a dental history of the patient is the very first step of all dental appointments but is not a step in the process of informed consent. Informed consent involves complete comprehensive discussion of the treatment the patient will be receiving and their consent to proceed with it. 

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20 Which nerve is the most significant to dentistry?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The trigeminal nerve is the most significant nerve in dentistry, because it is the nerve that supplies all nerve innervation to the face and the mouth. This is the main nerve associated with injury, infection, and pain that a dentist or dental professional would need to take into consideration when planning dental procedures.
21 The following are all regions of the face, except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
There are 8 regions of the face which include the orbital region, infraorbital region, nasal region, zygomatic region, buccal region, parotid region, oral region, and mental region. The word "labial" refers to the lips, but the oral region is the region used when referencing the mouth.
22 Where might you find the majority of the papillae on the tongue?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While there are papillae on the ventral and lateral surfaces of the tongue, the majority are found on the dorsal surface. Foliate papillae are found on the lateral surfaces of the tongue. Lingual papillae are found on the ventral surface of the tongue. Four different types of papillae are found on the dorsal surface: filiform, fungiform, foliate, and circumvallate papillae.

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23 Which of the following are muscles of mastication?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The muscles of mastication include all of the muscles listed above. It is commonly thought that the buccinator muscle is one of the muscles for mastication. However, the buccinator is considered to be one of the assistant muscles of mastication, not one of the four main muscles.
24 Which specialty of dentistry is the Palmer Notation Method most commonly used in?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The Palmer Notation Method is most commonly used in orthodontics, where it is used to label and identify both primary teeth and adult teeth using a symbol to designate quadrants. All other dental specialties (periodontics, endodontics, and oral surgery) utilize the Universal Numbering System in the U.S. The FDI Numbering System is the numbering method used in other countries outside of the U.S.
25 What is the term for when the maxillary arch horizontally overlaps the mandibular arch by 1-3 mm?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Overjet is the term used for when the maxillary arch horizontally overlaps the mandibular arch by about 1-3mm. Another plausible answer and another type of overlap would be overbite, but overbite is the term used for when the maxillary arch vertically overlaps the mandibular arch by about 1-3mm. Underbite is the term used for when the mandibular arch vertically overlaps the maxillary arch by 1-3mm. Crossbite is the term used for when there is a misalignment in the occlusion (or the bite) and the maxillary teeth close together distally (or behind) the mandibular teeth. The maxillary teeth should place facially to the mandibular teeth in ideal occlusion (Class I Occlusion).

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26 Which of the following parafunctional habits affect malocclusion of the jaws?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Parafunctional habits are repetitive habits that affect the formation of the dentition and other structures within the oral cavity. Clenching affects facial muscles, causing them to be overactive and enlarged, and also wears down the enamel on the teeth, causing wear facets and attrition. Tongue thrusting can result in an overjet and misalignment of teeth. Lip incompetence involves the inability to close one's lips together at rest, which causes lower facial strain and can lead to mouth breathing and dryness of the oral cavity. Abfraction causes loss of tooth structure which can overall affect the dentition, by forcing some teeth to compensate in alignment and in function for others.
27 Hutchinson incisors and Mulberry molars are developmental disturbances caused by which
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Syphilis may lead to a variety of symptoms and potential defects. Developmental disturbances occur while the fetus is developing. Congenital conditions and diseases are those that are present at birth. Another plausible answer may have been congenital heart disease or fetal alcohol syndrome as both of these affect the fetus and are present at birth. However, Hutchinson incisors and Mulberry molars occur due to defects in the formation of tooth cusps, which is caused by congenital syphilis.
28 Something that deviates from what is standard or normal is called a(n):
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Anomalies deviate from the standard, the normal, or the expected. Another possible answer may have been a disorder, however a disorder is classified by a disruption. An anomaly typically is safe and benign, and has no overall effect on the individual (E.g. a birthmark or a supernumerary tooth/an extra tooth). A syndrome is an entire group of symptoms when all present together represent a certain condition or disease. Atrophy is the term used to describe a decrease or degeneration in tissue, whether it be muscular, glandular, etc. All of the other choices listed describe a disruption to the norm, where as an anomaly is a differentiation from the norm, but does not have any significant effects.

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29 The following are terms used to describe the clinical appearance of a soft tissue lesion, except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Radiolucent is a term used to describe how a structure appears on a radiograph/x-ray. A radiolucent structure is almost completely transparent to radiation. The other descriptors describe lesions physically assessable on soft tissue such as the gingiva, for example.
30 Which of the following immunologic diseases has the common characteristic of a "target" or "bull's eye" lesion?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the conditions listed may produce some type of lesion on the skin. Erythema Multiforme produces bulls-eye-shaped lesions, specifically. Another plausible answer may have been Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, as it also refers to erythema (redness/inflammation) within the name of the disorder. With this condition however, a common characteristic is a butterfly rash spread across the cheeks and nose of the face.
31 Which of the following infectious diseases is caused by coxsackievirus?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Coxsackievirus is an enterovirus that falls within a family of RNA viruses. All of the above infectious diseases are viral infections caused by the coxsackievirus.

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32 All of the following match the pneumonic for the ABCDEs of melanoma, except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The pneumonic for the ABCDEs of melanoma was created to be used as a memorable reference when evaluating lesions found on the skin for melanoma. The "B" in the ABCDEs is for "Borders," as the lesion's borders should be evaluated. An irregular border can be a sign that a lesion should be further evaluated or biopsied.
33 Which of the following systemic diseases has a direct systemic link to periodontal disease?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diabetes is the only disease listed above with scientific literature proving a direct systemic link to periodontal disease. Scientists are currently evaluating the link between periodontal disease and CHF and periodontal disease and Alzheimer's, however, there is not enough literature at this time. Smoking has also been proven to have a direct link to periodontal disease.
34 Which of the following medications has a side effect of dry mouth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dry mouth is a common side effect to many different types of medications. Common families of medications that may cause dry mouth include: anticholinergics, antidepressants (Zoloft), stimulants (Adderall), opioids, antipsychotics/mood disorder medications (Risperdal) and anticonvulsants (Gabapentin).

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35 Scurvy is a clinical condition that results from which vitamin deficiency?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Scurvy results from a severe lack of Vitamin C. Oral manifestations of scurvy include swollen, bleeding gums that may become purple and spongy. Vitamin C is essential for tissue repair and healing wounds, such as bleeding gums.
36 Oral thrush is a fungal infection in the mouth caused by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Oral thrush, also known as Oral candidiasis, is a fungal infection caused by the fungus Candida albicans. It causes white lesions throughout the oral cavity (specifically on the tongue, back of throat, and cheeks) and a cotton-like feeling in the mouth. All of the other choices are bacteria that can be found in the mouth. Streptococcus is commonly found in the normal flora of the mouth. Treponema denticola and Porphyromonas gingivalis are present in an individual who has periodontal disease.
37 All of the following are oral manifestations of a patient who presents with bulimia, except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Patients that present with bulimia tend to binge eat and then purge their food. The excessive acidity in the mouth due to consistent purging causes enamel erosion, which may lead to tooth sensitivity and potentially dental caries as well. The acidity causes dryness in the mouth so hypersalivation would not be an oral manifestation of bulimia.

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38 Which of the following requires a patient to premedicate prior to their dental appointment?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The protocol for a major joint surgery such as a hip or knee replacement requires a patient to take an antibiotic premedication prior to their dental appointment to protect against infective endocarditis. The length of time a patient needs to premedicate prior to a dental appointment depends on their surgeon. A surgeon may require a lifetime premedication protocol, or to premedicate for six months after the replacement surgery. The office/clinician should document clearance from the surgeon and have the surgeon's instructions for premedication on file for the patient. Another plausible answer may have been a recent surgery as some surgeries do require premedication such as a major joint surgery, however small/minor surgeries do not require any premedication.
39 Complete tooth displacement from the socket following extensive trauma is called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When extensive trauma occurs to the mouth (such as from a car accident, being struck in the face with a ball, a frontwards fall, etc.), a tooth can become completely displaced from its socket. This is called avulsion. Exfoliation is the term used for the natural shedding of the teeth, such as when a child loses a baby tooth to make room for an adult tooth to erupt in its place.
40 What is the primary cause of the condition known as Early Childhood Caries (ECC)?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A baby that sleeps with a bottle of milk is the primary cause of ECC, which is a condition involving extensive acute caries. Milk, even breast milk, has a lot of sugar in it that can cause rapid formation of caries in a child's primary teeth. The guardian of the child should remove the bottle and use a damp cloth or baby brush to clean out and remove the sugar from the child's mouth after feeding.

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41 When taking a dental radiographic, if the tube head is improperly positioned, and the center of the beam misses the center of the sensor/film cutting off the edge of the focal spot and creating a blank space, it is known as:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cone cut is a common placement error, where the tube head is improperly positioned and the resulting image displays a curved white area from the light reflecting the cone of the tube head. Another plausible answer would be a ghost image as that choice makes sense due to the description of the error involving a blank space. However, a ghost image occurs from the scattering of light and usually results in a shadow from another source such as from the spine or a cataract.
42 When would you take a periapical image instead of a bitewing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bitewings are the more commonly used radiograph. They allow the clinician to see a close up of the interproximal areas, or in between the contacts of the teeth. This allows the dentist to detect caries and evaluate older restorations. You can also detect changes in bone levels over time by comparing older bitewings. You would take a periapical image when you want to see the root of the tooth to evaluate for an abscess, deep decay, or other pathology.
43 All of the following indicate the need to perform scaling and root planing (SRP) on a patient, except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A heavy wall of supragingival tartar, even when completely covering the teeth, is not a true indicator of the need for SRP. Some patients build up heavier, and actually need shorter recall appointments or a debridement, but the amount of tartar itself does not indicate this type of treatment. SRP is needed when both scaling and planing of the root need to be performed, due to tartar stuck subgingivally causing bleeding gums and deep pockets. If tartar is not removed, this can eventually lead to bone loss, which can be detected radiographically.
44 What is enamel primarily composed of?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Enamel's composition can be broken down to: 87% hydroxyapatite, 11% water, and 2% organic matrix. Another plausible answer would have been Calcium, as hydroxyapatite is partially composed of calcium as well as the organic matrix. However, the main structural component of tooth enamel is the substance, hydroxyapatite itself.

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45 Acidity produced when the bacteria in foods break down causes demineralization of enamel. At what level pH does enamel begin to demineralize?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
pH has to drop below 5.5 to begin demineralizing enamel. Below 7 is another plausible answer, as once the pH drops below 7 it begins to enter into an acidic state. However, acidity does not start to break down enamel until it drops below 5.5.
46 Which protein found in saliva is the most prominent defender against bacterial injuries within the oral cavity?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Lactoferrin has antibacterial properties to fight against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. It acts as a protective barrier on mucosal surfaces and can potentially be used as a natural antibiotic.
47 Drugs are classified into five categories, or Schedules, to differentiate between drugs used for medical use and to identify drugs with higher drug dependency. Which category does heroin fall under?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Schedule I is the category of drugs with no acceptable medical use and that have a high risk of dependency and abuse. Heroin is in Schedule I. This question may be tricky, as some people may think the higher the schedule, the more intense the drug, and assume heroin would fall under Schedule V. However, Schedule V have the lowest potential for abuse, such as Robitussin.

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48 Which drug is considered a broad spectrum drug since it can kill a wide variety of bacteria, but should not be given to children under 12 or pregnant women as it can cause discoloration on developing teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tetracycline is an antibiotic that is known for causing staining on a child's teeth when ingested by a pregnant woman or to the child while their teeth are still developing. Fluoride can also cause staining to the teeth if ingested in excess. This condition is called fluorosis, however fluoride is not a drug.
49 Where is the incisive papilla located?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The incisive papilla is located at the midline of the anterior hard palate between teeth #8 and #9, or the central maxillary incisors. Most of the papillae in the oral cavity are located on the dorsal surface of the tongue, however this specific structure is located on the roof of the mouth.
50 Which of the following natural sugars are considered the best substitute for traditional sugar?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Xylitol is a natural sugar that actually has remineralizing properties and can be used to prevent cavities. Stevia is a great substitute for traditional white sugar, but the best substitute for your teeth and enamel is xylitol.

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