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Principles of Electrical and Refrigeration Theory 

1. What is the symbol for impedance?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The symbol or letter for impedance is Z and it is represented by writing its magnitude and phase.
2. What is the color code of a safety ground conductor for an A/C circuit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The NEC and NFPA has designated green as a ground.
3. Resistance is __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The opposition to the passage of current flow is resistance.
4. How many watts of power are used by a heater operating at 480 volts and drawing 5 amps?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Power laws P = I x E. 480 x 5 = 2400 watts.
5. What type of meter uses its own power source?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ohmmeters measure resistance and cannot be used in a live circuit, therefore must have its own power source.
6. Fuses are sized by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fuses are rated in voltage and amps.
7. Two 120 volt A/C incandescent light bulbs are wired in series; one is a 60 watt bulb and the other is a 4 watt bulb. The result would be _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The 60 watt bulb will act as a conductor and only the lower watt bulb would light. There is a small amount of voltage drop across the 60 watt bulb but usually not enough to make it light.
8. There are two capacitors wired in parallel, one rated at 25 mfd and one rated at 5 mfd.  What is capacitance?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When capacitors are wired in parallel, the formula used for combining the capacitors is C1 + C3 = Ct : 25 + 5 = 30
9. What is the term used to describe the input side of a transformer?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The input side of a transformer is known as the primary side.
10. What is the resistance required in a 240-volt circuit in order to limit the power to 480 watts?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
480 watts divided by 240 volts will equal 2 amps, therefore Ohm's law will apply voltage divided by amperage equals resistance:

240 ÷ 2 = 120 Ohms

Other formulas which can be used are as follows:

W ÷ I2 = R or E2 ÷ W = R
11. The total resistance of a parallel circuit will be ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Parallel circuit laws state that total resistance in a parallel circuit is always less than the smallest resistor in the circuit.
12. A parallel circuit consists of three resistors: R1 = 24 ohms R2 = 60 ohms R3 = 40 ohms What is the total resistance of the circuit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The smallest resistor is 24 ohms, therefore the total must be less than 24. One of the parallel circuit laws state that the total resistance is always less than the smallest resistor in a parallel circuit. There are two formulas for finding total resistance in a parallel circuit:
13. An electronically commutated motor (ECM) is designed to ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
ECM motors are designed to maintain the proper air flow based on the static pressure to a predetermined limit set by the manufacturer.
14. An ohmmeter should never be connected to ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Connecting an ohmmeter to live voltage can damage the meter and possibly harm the person testing with the meter.
15. Which of the following would be considered an inductive load?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An inductive load is a load consisting of a coil of wire which will cause current to lag voltage; such as a motor or transformer.
16. A transformer has 1200 turns of wire in the primary coil and 120 turns in the secondary coil. What will the output voltage be if 240 volts are applied?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The ratio of turns is 10 to 1, therefore 240 divided by 10 equals 24 volts secondary.
17. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining Impedance in an AC circuit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
18. When current flows, a _____________ is produced around the conductor.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When current flows through a conductor, a magnetic field is created and extends out from the conductor.
19. If the conductor in an AC circuit is wound into a coil, the resulting EMF opposes the supply voltage. What is this opposition called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Inductive reactance is a phenomena that takes place in an alternating current circuit involving a coil of wire and the reversing magnetic fields which will create a voltage in the opposite direction. This counter EMF will act like resistance to the applied voltage.
20. Which of the following is used to disconnect the start winding on a single phase fractional horse power motor after the motor reaches a certain speed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Current type motor starting relays are used for assisting in the starting function of single phase AC motors of resistance start, induction run and capacitor start, induction run types. The primary function is to remove the start capacitor or start winding from the circuit.
21. What determines single phase motor speed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alternating current motor speed is based on the number of poles in the motor.
Examples:
2 pole motor would be 3600 RPMs
4 pole motor 1800 RPMs
22. What action must be taken to change the direction of a three-phase motor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
By reversing any two leads of a three-phase power supply, the rotation of a three phase motor will reverse
23. What is the device used to control a motor with built in overload protection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The motor starter incorporates a contactor and overload relays to open the circuit in the event of an overload to prevent the motor from overheating.
24. What component determines the maximum amperage through a contactor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Contactors are rated by the amperage draw through the contacts and cause minimal arching.
25. The ___________ drawing illustrates where the components are located in small appliances.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A pictorial wiring diagram is a simplified conventional representation of an electrical circuit. It shows the components of the circuit as simplified shapes, and the power connections between the devices. This wiring diagram usually gives more information about the relative position and arrangement of devices and terminals on the devices.

Air Conditioning 

26. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Any time there is a change of temperature indicated by the thermometer the heat level or intensity can easily be measured. In the writings of the early scientists who provided the foundations of thermodynamics, sensible heat had a clear meaning in calorimetric.
27. What is heat, which causes a change in the state of a material without a change in temperature, called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Heat, which causes a change of state without a change in temperature, is known as latent heat. An example of latent heat is water changing to ice or vice a versa. Latent heat is the heat released or absorbed by a body or a thermodynamic system during a process that occurs without a change in temperature.
28. What is heat called which is added to a vapor after the change of state occurs?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Superheat is best described as heat above the saturation (change of state) temperature of a vapor; it is any heat added causing a change in temperature after all the liquid has boiled away.
29. Heat can travel by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Heat transfer is a discipline of thermal engineering that concerns the conversion, and exchange of thermal energy and heat between physical principles. Heat transfer is classified into various methods, such as thermal conduction, thermal convection, and thermal radiation.
30. What is the movement of heat through space called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Radiation is the transfer of energy through space by way of electromagnetic waves The same laws that govern the transfer of light govern the radiant transfer of heat.
31. A refrigerant releases heat when __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When refrigerant gas is compressed, the pressure and temperature rapidly increases above saturation temperature. The gas enters the condenser which will cause the gas to de-superheat, change state (Vapor to liquid) and finally become subcooled. During this whole process the heat is being released by sensible and latent processes.
32. Why is it important for refrigerant in the suction line to be superheated?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When gas travels from a direct expansion evaporator to the compressor, it is in a superheated state. This will assure that no liquid will enter the compressor that can cause damage. Being superheated means that no liquid is present.
33. A 30 pound cylinder of reclaimed R-410A refrigerant has been stored over night at 70°F. What should be the approximate pressure in the cylinder?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
34. 14.7 psia (pounds per square inch absolute) is _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pounds per square inch absolute (psia) is used to make it obvious that the pressure is relative to a vacuum rather than atmospheric pressure. The reverse is pounds per square inch gauge (psig), indicating that the pressure is relative to atmospheric pressure. Since atmospheric pressure at sea level is 14.7 psia, 14.7 must be subtracted from any psia reading above atmospheric to achieve a psig reading.
35. A compound pressure gauge connects ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The compound gauge is mounted on the left side of the gauge manifold set and connects to the low side of an air conditioning system. The compound gauge allows the HVAC technician to measure pressure above atmospheric pressure and vacuum pressure (below atmospheric pressure). Some systems may operate in a vacuum to obtain a low evaporator temperature.
36. What is the main function of a condenser?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The main function of any air condition condenser is to remove both sensible and latent heat from the refrigerant by causing the gas from the compressor to go through three stages; de-superheat, change of state and sub-cool.
37. Refrigerant R-134a vapor enters the condenser at 124 psig, 100° F. It leaves the condenser at 80° F. What will be the approximate pressure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The pressure should not change entering or leaving the condenser. The condenser's primary design is to expel the heat from the refrigerant that was absorbed in the low side of the system. The compressor will maintain the pressure and only the temperature will change.
38. When the refrigeration cycle is super imposed onto an enthalpy chart the condenser de-superheat is in what zone?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When the refrigeration cycle is super imposed onto a pressure enthalpy diagram, de-superheating is located between points 2 and 3.
39. Which of the following CANNOT be used as a low ambient temperature control?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Crankcase pressure regulating valves are designed to prevent overloading of the compressor motor during and after a defrost cycle or a normal pull-down period by limiting the crankcase pressure to a predetermined maximum value.
40. When testing the efficiency of a (15 seer or lower) air cooled condenser, the refrigerant condensing temperature should be no more than ____ higher than the entering air temperature.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The saturated or condensing temperature of the refrigerant should not exceed 20oF above the outdoor ambient. This is referred to as Condenser TD difference between refrigerant condensing and ambient air. It is also referred to as CTOA condensing temperature over ambient. The higher the efficiency, the closer the saturated refrigerant condensing temperature is to the air temperature.

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41. When testing the efficiency of a water cooled condenser, the refrigerant condensing temperature should be no more than _______ higher than the leaving water temperature.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Water medium is much more efficient than air cooled condensers, therefore a higher than 10° F split will cause high head pressure and the system would not operate efficiently.
42. What does a temperature differential across a filter-drier indicate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When a system has a restricted filter drier, it causes a pressure drop across the drier, thus restricting the flow of refrigerant, and the difference in pressure results in a temperature drop across the drier at the point of the restriction.
43. Which of the following symptoms would be indicative of an oil logged evaporator?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When oil coats the walls of the evaporator coil it will act as an insulator thus reducing heat transfer. This condition could cause liquid flooding back to the compressor. It will also rob the compressor of oil needed for proper operation. The causes of oil logged evaporators are too much oil, improper piping practices and liquid migration to the compressor during off cycle.
44. When using an electronic leak detector, the sensor probe _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Moving the probe any faster than the recommended speed of one inch per second may result in leaks not being detected.
45. Before a vapor / compression system is opened for service _____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Refrigerant must be recovered with approved equipment according to EPA Section 608. Failure to recover could result in loss of certification, fines and having to appear in federal court.
46. What is the minimum vertical drop from the outlet of the condensate drain pan to the inlet of the P trap when the evaporator is ahead of the blower?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The water level in the trap must be low enough that a pressure higher than the static pressure of the air-handler would be required to make it flow back into the drain pan. The higher the air-handle static pressure, the more vertical drop is required.
47. The temperature rise method of determining air volume CFM is mostly used with a/an;
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The Btu output along with the temperature difference across the furnace can easily be calculated and applied to the sensible heat formula. CFM = Btu divided by (1.08 times the temperature difference).
48. What type of compressor do ductless heating/cooling systems use to make the system out-put match varying cooling or heating demand?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Inverter driven compressors operate at varying speed by changing the AC voltage and frequency.
49. How do Inverters used for air conditioning control the compressors speed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An inverter changing the voltage from AC to DC then pulses the on and off time of the applied DC voltage to the motor from 0 to approximately 120 cycles.
50. Two wire digital electronic thermostats are ________________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Some digital electronic thermostats can use a shielded 2 conductor cable with a 1 positive and 1 negative connection between the indoor and out sections of a split system.
51. Digital electronic controls are referred to as ______________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Two wire data communicating controls are called direct digital controls.

Commercial Air Conditioning 

52. What is a sling psychrometer used to measure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A sling psychrometer is a device that consist of two thermometers fitted in a hinged bracket used for spinning the two thermometers. One of the bulbs is kept moist with distilled water on a sock or wick placed over the thermometer's tip. As the thermometers are rotated, evaporation of water from the wick lowers the temperature indicating a lower temperature than that of the dry-bulb thermometer. This is the Wet bulb temperature which will be lower than the dry bulb and can never be above dry bulb measurement. The lower the relative humidity, the lower the wet bulb temperature. The difference in the two bulbs readings can be applied to a psychrometric chart to calculate relative humidity and other properties of air.
53. A compressor is operating with a discharge pressure of 235.3 psig and a suction pressure of 35.3 psig. What is the compression ratio (pumping ratio)?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Compression ratio is found by dividing the absolute discharge pressure by the absolute suction pressure. PSIG is converted to absolute by adding 14.7 to the pressure.

In this problem, discharge pressure 235.3 plus 14.7 equals 250 PSIA and the suction pressure 35.3 plus 14.7 equals 50 PSIA.

250/50 = 5

The ratio is 5 to 1
54. What method does Hot Gas Bypass refer to?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The inlet of the hot gas bypass valve is piped from a tee in the discharge line at the outlet of the compressor. The outlet of the bypass valve is piped to a tee between the expansion valve and the distributor of the evaporator coil.

When the load or demand drops in the evaporator, hot gas is piped into the evaporator and mixed with saturated liquid. This keeps the pressure up to prevent short cycling due to low capacity.
55. If a TEV sensing bulb has lost all of its charge, what effect would this have on the air conditioning system?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bulb pressure is the opening force of a thermal expansion valve. When the bulb charge is lost, the spring and evaporator pressures valve will cause the valve to close or slow down the feed to the evaporator dropping the pressure.
56. An increase in water flow, when using a water cooled condenser, would _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
By increasing water flow, this will cause the discharge pressure to drop. More water at a cooler temperature will absorb more heat and lower the pressure. Water cooled condensers are designed to maintain a 10 degree differential between the refrigerant and water temperature.
57. An air conditioning unit has a suction line iced up to the compressor. What would this be an indication of?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A dirty air filter will decrease air flow resulting in lower evaporator pressure and temperature; once the temperature is below 32°F the evaporator will frost over, acting as an insulator then the suction line will develop ice to the compressor.
58. The clearance space in a reciprocating compressor _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Efficiency of reciprocating compressors are reduced due to the gas that re-expands in the clearance space. The greater the clearance between the top of the piston and bottom of the valve plate, the more the gas will re-expand on the down stroke of the piston. The suction valve will not open until the pressure is lower than pressure on the other side of the valve.
59. What is used to control the flow of water on a water-cooled condenser?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Used to maintain the proper head pressure in the condenser, the water regulating valve has a diaphragm that opens the valve as the head pressure rises increasing the flow of water. It works off the principle of refrigerant pressure/temperature relationship.
60. 41.65 lbs. of refrigerant passing through a water-cooled condenser will give up 10 Btu's of heat per lb. If 5 gals. of water pass through with an entering temperature of 80°F, what would be the temperature of the water leaving the condenser?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Five gallons of water is equivalent to 41.65 lbs, therefore the BTUs absorbed by water is equal to the BTUs given up by the refrigerant. Since the water will absorb 10 BTUs of heat, the temperature will rise 1 degree per lb. Water enters at 80°F and would leave at 90°F.
61. How should metallic vibration eliminators be installed on a system which uses a reciprocating compressor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The primary function of a vibration eliminator is to absorb compressor vibration and stop the transition of vibration into the piping and components of the air-conditioning system. By isolating the compressors vibration, the risk of damage to piping and the connecting components are reduced.

Vibration eliminators should be installed perpendicular to the direction of vibration (parallel with the compressor crankshaft).
62. The total amount of heat contained in one pound of a substance calculated from an accepted temperature base is called _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Enthalpy is the total amount of heat contained in one pound of a substance and is calculated from an accepted temperature base. The temperature base for refrigerants is minus 40°F.
63. If non-condensables are trapped in a condenser, what symptoms will be present?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Non-condensables in an air conditioning system are gases that will not condense at the same temperature and pressure in which the refrigerant will condense. Non-condensables take up valuable space in the condenser which is used for removing the heat from the refrigerant allowing it to condense into a liquid. If the refrigerant cannot condense into a liquid taking up less space, the gas will cause the temperature and pressure to rise causing high amperage draw.
64. Many multi-cylinder reciprocating compressors have a capacity control device called;
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Un-loaders are devices used on reciprocating compressors to control capacity. Un-loaders will disengage one or more cylinders hydraulically or electrically lifting the suction valves off its seat thus controlling capacity. When suction valve is lifted off its seat the gas enters the cylinder on the down stroke and when the compressor on the up stroke will force the gas back into the suction port. This will reduce capacity and energy consumption of a compressor.
65. When thermostatic expansion valves are used on a system with multiple evaporators, a __________ will have to be incorporated into the system.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Systems with multiple evaporators must have a receiver to store refrigerant, due to the different demand and feed of refrigerant to each evaporator.
66. A pilot-operated evaporator pressure regulator uses _______ pressure to operate the valve.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The EPR valve is used to permit two or more evaporators, to work at different load temperatures and to function with one compressor. They maintain the evaporator pressure it is connected to according to a set point and are not dependent on the loads. The evaporator pressure is used to control the operation of the valve.
67. Which of the following uses a low-side float metering device?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Flooded evaporators are normally used for 100 tons or above cooling capacity. This metering device maintains the entire evaporator at a particular level of liquid. As some of the liquid refrigerant boils off, the float opens a valve allowing more liquid to enter the evaporator. Many flooded evaporators are also used in industrial process refrigeration equipment.
68. In a direct expansion (DX) evaporator system, refrigerant leaves the evaporator as ______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In a direct expansion evaporator the refrigerant enters as a liquid and as it absorbs heat the liquid boils changing into a vapor. After the change to a vapor it absorbs more heat in the last rows of the evaporator and becomes a superheated gas.
69. When setting a high pressure cut-out on a R-410A system which has an air cooled condenser, the setting should be approximately _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The pressure must be set above the working pressure for an R-410A system. The design condensing temperature is from 65°F to 120°F. The pressure is 417 psi for 120 degree condensing temperature. The cutout must be set approximately 45% - 50% above the operating pressure.
70. When is the installation of a "P" trap mandatory in a drain line?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Due to the negative pressure, without a P-trap air will be sucked through the drain and will block the flow of condensate.
71. A pump-down system may require a (an);
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Depending on the size of the evaporator and liquid line, the condenser may not be large enough to hold all the refrigerant during pump down.
72. What is a liquid receiver used for?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A receiver is used to store liquid refrigerant for varying loads, multi evaporators and pump-down.
73. An oil pressure safety switch is operated by _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Oil pump is located inside the compressor, therefore it must compensate for surrounding refrigerant pressure. The difference between the measured oil pressure and the crankcase pressure is the net oil pressure.
74. To control capacity, the hot gas from the bypass valve is piped into the ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
By piping the hot gas back into the suction line the compressor pumping efficiency is reduced.
75. Which of the following is the opening force on a water regulating valve being used on a water cooled condenser?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The regulating valve must sense the pressure that is trying to control.
76. What is the "G" terminal used for on a heating and cooling thermostat?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The (G) terminal is used to control the indoor blower relay on most thermostats.
77. Why do multiple compressor systems have a balance line?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When multiple compressors are used in conjunction with each other it is important to keep the oil level the same in all the compressors.
78. When should a thermostatic expansion valve with an external equalization line be used?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Due to pressure temperature relationship, thermostatic expansion valves must sense the correct pressure at the location of the thermal bulb to maintain the correct superheat. Pressure drop is usually caused by size or capacity of the evaporator taking into account the number of U-bends.

Commercial Refrigeration 

79. In a (direct expansion) evaporator, liquid refrigerant must boil away as close to the end of the coil as possible in order to:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Direct type evaporators are designed to operate most efficiently with approximately 10 degrees superheat. In order to have superheat, all liquid must be boiled away before reaching the end of the evaporator.
80. A thermal expansion valve that is stuck wide open will cause ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A valve that is in the maximum open position will have liquid refrigerant flowing at a rate faster than the evaporator could boil it away; thus creating a flooded coil and liquid refrigerant going back to the compressor.
81. A properly functioning condenser should always have ______________ leaving the condenser.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The condenser causes the refrigerant to go through three processes: first de-superheat, second a change of state and finally the refrigerant is cooled below saturation temperature. The refrigerant is sub-cooled at this point. The amount of sub-cooling is critical to the system efficiency.
82. Tube within a tube, shell and coil, and shell and tube are all types of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above condensers are classified as water cooled type condensers. Tube within a tube condensers are used in systems such as: residential water source heat pumps and shell type condensers are used in commercial applications.
83. What is the reason that reciprocating compressors are not 100% efficient?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Efficiency of reciprocating compressors are reduced due to the re-expanding gas that is in the cylinder clearance space . The greater the clearance between the top of the piston and bottom of the valve plate, the more the gas will re-expand on the down stroke of the piston reducing the pumping efficiency .
84. Where is an open drive compressor most likely to develop a refrigerant leak?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The most likely place for an open type compressor to leak is around the shaft that extends through the shell of the compressor and the seal. Friction will eventually wear out the seal.
85. A dirty evaporator and return air filters can cause low evaporator pressures which will cause:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
High compression ratios conditions are caused when the spread between suction and discharge pressure increases. This will cause the efficiency to decrease. Each type of compressor will have its own ratio guide based on manufacturer's design.
86. The automatic expansion valve (AEV) maintains a constant ______ in the evaporator.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The automatic expansion valve is designed to maintain a constant pressure in the evaporator. This valve can only be used when the evaporator load does not change very much. When the valve responds to higher load demands, it functions opposite to TEV valve, it will temporally cause the valve to close as demand increases.
87. When the defrost cycle in a freezer is terminated, the evaporator fans will _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The high velocity fans are delayed from coming on to prevent any water left on the evaporator from been blown into cooler space causing an ice safety hazard.
88. An off-cycle defrost method is often used on evaporators operating at a minimum of ____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An off cycle defrost method is used when the coil is slightly frosted over from operating below or at 32°F refrigerant temperature. Defrost is dependent upon warm air in the cooler above (32°F) to melt the ice before the next on-cycle.
89. Short cycling during pump down can be caused by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Short cycling is caused by discharge pressure leaking back to the low side through the compressor suction valve.
90. What type metering device is best suited in applications where freeze protection is required?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The automatic expansion valve may be used to prevent the refrigerant pressure, thus the evaporator temperature from dropping below the freezing point.
91. The "Fan Cycle Control" is used in conjunction with low ambient temperature conditions to control __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The discharge pressure is controlled by cycling the condenser fan(s). When the ambient temperature drops, a decrease in head pressure will result. Reduced refrigerant pressure reduces the flow causing decreased capacity.
92. What is a crankcase heater used to prevent?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When ambient temperature drops the compressor can become cold and refrigerant may migrate to the oil or condense in the compressor. As the suction pressure drops on start-up, the refrigerant will boil causing the oil to foam and be pumped from the crankcase. To prevent this, a crankcase heater heats the oil to prevent the refrigerant from mixing with the oil.
93. The type of compressor that allows access to the internal components is the _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All compressors that are hermetic are of the welded type, and cannot be easily taken apart. Semi-hermetic compressors are designed to be taken apart and usually have the bolted type housing.
94. What maintenace is required on a water cooling tower?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
As water is evaporated from the cooling tower, minerals that are left behind will form scales. After a period of time the scaling will cause poor heat transfer and inefficiency. De-scaling is preformed with chemicals at least once a year.
95. A refrigeration system used to cool another refrigeration system is called a _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cascade systems are an arrangement of two or more refrigeration systems that are used in series to achieve ultra-low temperatures. The evaporator cools the condenser of the other system.
96. High temperature refrigeration applications normally provide box temperatures of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
High temperature refrigeration applications normally are 47 to 60 degrees box temperature. The storage of such things as flowers, candy and some fruit and vegetables must be maintained at these temperatures.
97. The suction accumulator helps to prevent flood back from which of the following conditions?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When the fan is not running, some of the refrigerant will not boil away in the evaporator and liquid will flow out of the evaporator to the compressor. A suction line accumulator is used to prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor.
98. When a compressor service valve is in the cracked position, how many ports are open?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A service valve is a manually controlled valve with three ports: line port, compressor port and a service port. This valve has three positions: back-seated position for normal operation, front-seated position for isolating a component and cracked position when servicing the system. When the service valve is in the cracked position all ports are open.
99. What can a low pressure switch be used for?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A low pressure control can be used like a thermostat to control temperature. The switch works off the principle of pressure temperature relationship. By controlling evaporator pressure, temperature can also be controlled.
100. What is the name of an electrically operated shut-off valve?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Solenoid valves are shutoff valves that are opened or closed by an electro magnetic coil which controls an armature inside the valve. It is normally used for controlling refrigerant flow in the liquid line.
101. Why must an oil separator be kept warm?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An oil separator is a device installed in the discharge line between the compressor and condenser to help remove oil from the gaseous refrigerant. The oil is returned to the compressor by the use of a float or some other means. If during the off cycle the oil separator is allowed to cool, some gaseous refrigerant may condense and displace the oil and flow back to the compressor causing damage on start-up.
102. If a low pressure control has been adjusted to cut in at 30 psig, in order to have a 10 psig cut out, the differential setting of the control must be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The difference between cut in and cut out is known as differential setting. In this problem, cut in is 30 psig and cut out is 10, therefore 30 minus 10 equals 20 psig.
103. Ester based oils are ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ester based oils are hydroscopic in nature and are used with alternative refrigerants such as 134a to replace mineral oils

Heat Pump Service 

104. What is the major difference between a heat pump and an air conditioner?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The reversing valve is the component that will reverse the flow of refrigerant when changing from air conditioning to heating.
105. What device controls the supplementary electric heat according to the outdoor temperature?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
To control energy, the heat pump will incorporate outdoor thermostats to limit the auxiliary heat before the balance point is reached.
106. At the __________________, the heat pump will provide the same amount of heat as the heat loss of the building, without the use of auxiliary heat.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Initial balance point is based on the heat load of the structure and the capacity of the heat pump. Other balance points may be calculated to stage auxiliary heating elements on as the outdoor temperature drops to limit electrical demand.
107. To what temperature would a technician normally set an outdoor ambient thermostat?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The technician must know the heat load of the structure and initial balance point before attempting to set an outdoor thermostat. Once the balance point is known the set point is one to two degrees above the balance point.
108. A thermostat for a heat pump should be installed __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Thermostats are best fitted when installed on an interior wall and near the return air grill based on manufacturer's literature.
109. The heat pump defrost circuit board can be manually adjusted by the technician to ______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An electronic defrost board is designed to allow the technician to simulate the defrost cycle when trouble shooting or running a check on the heat pump.
110. What is the most preferred method of charging any system in the field?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Manufacturers recommend that field charging technicians should use the weight method.
111. You are checking for proper CFM airflow on a three ton heat pump system. The system has one return grill measuring 24" x 24", which has a net free area of 3.5 square feet. You measure air velocity and calculate an average of 243 FPM. What can you conclude from this information?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Based on 400 CFM per ton or a minimum of 350 CFM, a 3 ton cooling system should have an airflow of approximately 1,200 to 1,050 CFM. 243 FPM multiplied by 3.5 sq. ft. equals 850 CFM which would be extremely low for a heat pump operating the heating cycle.
112. What is the heat pump industry standard for maximum duration for defrost?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The standard is 10 minutes; if any longer, the compression ratio would increase and possibly damage the compressor.
113. You are starting-up a split system heat pump for the first time. The outdoor ambient temperature is 60°F. You check the temperature split across the indoor coil in the heat mode and find it is 38°F. You switch to cooling mode and determine a temperature split of 29°F. What is the most likely corrective action (relative to airflow)?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The fan normally operates at the same speed for cooling and heating for a heat pump. In most climates, more than a 19 degree temperature split would cause the supply air grilles the sweat in the cooling cycle. The air flow would need to be increased to reduce the temperature split for cooling and heating.
114. Heat pump heating mode efficiency is rated in _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
HSPF is the acronym for Heating Seasonal Performance Factor.
115. On a water source heat pump, the heat mode water regulating valve must be _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The outdoor coil becomes the evaporator in the heating cycle. The valve must open to increase the water flow adding additional heat for the system to transfer to the conditioned space.
116. An R410A heat hump operating in the heating mode has a suction pressure of 85 psig and head pressure of 385 psig. What is Its compression ratio?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Compression ratio is found by dividing absolute discharge pressure by absolute suction pressure. (385 + 14.7) ÷ (85 + 14.7) 399.7 ÷ 99.7 = 4.0
117. Which type of heat pump does not require a defrost cycle?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Water source does not require defrost because its operating temperature is above freezing
118. An R-410A heat pump operating in the cooling mode has a suction pressure of 118 psig. Adding 2 psig for pressure drop in the coil, the true outlet pressure is 120.5 psig. The temperature of the suction line at the outlet of the evaporator is 53° F. What is the superheat?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Saturation temperature for R410A at 120.5 psig is 41°F and suction line temperature is 53°F. Therefore, 53 minus 41 equals 12 degrees.
119. Which component control is used to change the direction of the refrigerant flow in a heat pump?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The reversing valve is the component that will change the flow of refrigerant when the heat-pump changes from heating to cooling or vice versa.
120. Some heat pump systems use a ______________ as a metering device.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The heat pump can incorporate TXV valves or fixed orifices for controlling the flow of refrigerant.
121. During the heating cycle the indoor coil becomes __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
During the heating cycle the indoor coil is the condenser. The heat rejected by the coil is used for heating the structure.
122. During the cooling cycle the outdoor coil becomes;
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
During the cooling cycle the outdoor coil becomes the condenser and rejects heat to the ambient outdoor air.
123. When the heat pump operates in defrost mode, the outdoor fan is normally ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In order for the heat-pump to melt any accumulated ice off the outdoor coil the heat-pump will reverse cycle and the outdoor fan is shut off to increase the head pressure to melt the ice.
124. Which of the following is true about refrigerant flow through a heat pump compressor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The compressor operates the same as any other unit. The refrigerant flow is reversed by the reversing valve control, depending on mode of operation (heating, cooling, or defrost). The valve is located after the compressor in the discharge line and before the compressor in the suction line.
125. What component is needed to prevent liquid refrigerant from flooding back and entering a reciprocating compressor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Since the heat-pump operates in adverse conditions, the compressor must be protected by a suction line accumulator to prevent any liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor.
126. What is done to a heat pump to enable it to operate efficiently at lower temperatures?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Two compressors are connected in series creating 2 stage compression to increase the overall compression ratio at low ambient temperatures.
127. During the defrost cycle, the system switches to the _______ mode.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When the system goes into defrost, the reversing valve switches to the cooling mode, shutting off the outdoor fan and bringing on supplemental heat to compensate for cooling the indoor air.
128. During the heating mode, the refrigerant in the outdoor coil is under ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In the heating mode the outdoor coil is the evaporator and therefore, under low pressure.
129. What is the recommended CFM across the evaporator coil of a heat pump?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Manufacturers recommend 400 to 450 CFM per ton should be used to limit the head pressure when operating in the heating cycle. Too little or too much air flow can cause severe problems.

Heat Pump Installation 

130. Which of the following is not a factor that should be considered when installing an outdoor unit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When installing the outdoor unit the return air is not a factor in the installation; all of the other answers are factors involving installation.
131. What is the minimum clearance for access panels on an outdoor condensing unit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Most manufacturers recommend 30 inches of clearance from the structure, bushes, hedges and any other obstructions.
132. When installing a roof-mounted unit on a flat roof, what is the minimum distance above the highest water level expected that it should be installed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Most manufacturers recommend 4 inches of height above the highest water level.
133. Power supply to the outdoor unit should be _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Manufacturers and codes state that an independent circuit from the structures main circuit panel must be provided to the unit with an additional disconnect next to the unit.
134. A heat pump outdoor system is being installed in a location that experiences large amount of rainfall with possible flooding. Which of the following would be the best choice for mounting the outdoor unit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In many low-lying areas it is recommended that the unit be mounted on a framework above the flood stage such as wooden platform, metal cradle, cinder blocks and pad.
135. Which of the following methods would be used to remove condensate from the indoor unit located inside a basement below grade of an existing structure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
It is recommended that a condensate pump be used.
136. Good field practice requires insulating the condensate line for at least the first ____ feet of the run from the indoor unit installed in a hot attic.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Many southern codes state that the condensate line must be insulated for the first 10 feet to prevent sweating, which could create a moisture problem.
137. A return grill, not using restrictive filters, should be sized to provide a minimum of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
It is recommended that return grills have a minimum of 144 unrestricted square inches per ton of capacity.
138. The vapor line on split system heat pumps between the outdoor and indoor units should be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Manufacturers recommend a minimum of 1/2 insulation be used on the vapor line which is the suction line in cooling and the hot gas line in heating.
139. What is the primary purpose of the cross (X) bend in a large rectangle duct?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sheet-metal can produce irritating noises without the X bend. Cross breaks are most common in an X shape, forming a slight pyramid shape in the metal without overly distorting it. The crossing ridges stiffen the face of the metal and help prevent it from buckling under a load. Cross breaks are often incorporated on machine enclosures and duct work where the added rigidity reduces noise from vibration or air flow. The main advantage of the Cross Break is that it allows designers to use thinner gauges, thus saving money, without compromising the strength.
140. To maintain efficiency, what type of control is wired in the system to prevent the auxiliary heat from coming on until needed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Outdoor thermostats are used to control the auxiliary heat from coming on too early. There are situations that could cause the auxiliary heat to come on prematurely such as having the heat off all day where the temperature is well below the thermostat set point, but the outdoor temperature is such that the heat pump itself could supply the heat needed without addition auxiliary heat.
141. What should be used to light an acetylene torch?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
OSHA proclaims that a striker is the only safe lighting device for acetylene torches. Propane lighters used for lighting cigarettes are considered very hazardous and can explode. Matches may put fingers in jeopardy due to close proximity of intense heat.
142. What does the "O" or "B" low voltage terminal on a conventional heat pump thermostat control?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wires connecting to the "O" , "B", or "O/B" terminals on your thermostat for a heat pump relate to the reversing valve that controls the flow of refrigerant in both heating and cooling operations. O is used for energizing in heating and B is used for energizing in cooling.

Gas, Oil and Combustion 

143. One BTU is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
One BTU is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. The pound of water absorbs 1 BTU of energy to change from 68°F to 69°F.
144. What is the primary composition of natural gas?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Natural gas distributed for consumer use is 95.4 % Methane, 2.2 % Ethane, 1.6 % Nitrogen, 0.5 % Carbon Dioxide, 0.2 % Propane, .04% butane, .01% Oxygen and .05 % miscellaneous gases.
145. Induced draft furnaces __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The draft inducer on an induced draft furnace does not create draft for the purpose of venting. The inducer creates a stable flow of combustion air and conveys the products of combustion to the venting system. Once in the venting system, the hot flue gases are conveyed to the outside via the venting system and thermal dynamic draft created by the density differential between flue gases and the surrounding air.
146. Category IV furnaces _______________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The inducer fan on a category IV furnace is designed to create both a stable flow of air for combustion as well as positive pressure to convey the flue gases to the outside through the PVC venting system.
147. Category I atmospheric furnaces ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A category I atmospheric furnace is designed to start up without the need for venting action. Once the burners have started and hot gases are being produced, the hot gases start to rise into the venting system. Once in the venting system, the hot flue gases are conveyed to the outside via the venting system and thermal dynamic draft created by the density differential between flue gases and the surrounding air.
148. What is equivalent to one PSI?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
To convert inches of water column to PSI it is necessary to multiply the inches of water column by .0361:

27.7 x .0361 = 0.99997 PSI

To convert pascals to PSI multiply pascals by 0.000145037738:

35 x 0.000145037738 = .00507632083
149. What is the first step in the heating sequence of operation when using a non-communicating control?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The first step in the heating sequence of operation is the thermostat calls for heat. Nothing else happens until the thermostat calls for heat.
150. What type of change is an increase of temperature from 32 to 33 degrees?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A sensible heat change is a physical change in temperature i.e. a change from 32 to 33 degrees is a physical change in temperature. A latent heat change is a change to a substance without changing the temperature i.e. 1 pound of ice at 32 degrees changes to 1 pound of water at 32 degrees. This is a change to the state of the substance without changing the temperature.
151. What is the approximate manifold gas pressure for a natural gas furnace?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Most manufacturers specify 3.5 inches of water column gas pressure as the pressure setting for most residential furnaces.
152. What does a technician need to do to measure temperature rise?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Temperature rise is the differential temperature measured across the heat exchanger. The temperature change across the heat exchanger is measured by measuring the supply air temperature and subtracting the return air temperature. The value remaining is the temperature rise.
153. The specific heat of air is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Specific heat is the quantity of heat required to change 1 pound of a particular substance 1°F. Every substance has a different specific heat, i.e. the specific heat of water is 1. The specific heat of air is .24.
154. The specific gravity of natural gas is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Specific gravity of a gas is the ratio of density compared to air at a standard temperature and pressure. The specific gravity of air is 1 and natural gas is .55 to .80.
155. The specific gravity of propane is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Specific gravity of a gas is the ratio of density compared to air at a standard temperature and pressure. The specific gravity of air is 1 and propane is 1.5.
156. The specific gravity of butane is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Specific gravity of a gas is the ratio of density compared to air at a standard temperature and pressure. The specific gravity of air is 1 and butane is 2.0
157. The BTU value of natural gas per cubic foot is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The BTU value per cubic for natural gas is 1000.
158. The BTU value of propane per cubic foot is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The BTU value of propane is 2520.
159. The BTU value of butane is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The BTU value of butane is 3200.
160. What is the approximate manifold gas pressure for a propane furnace?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Most manufacturers specify 11 to 13 inches of water column gas pressure as the pressure setting for propane fuelled residential furnaces.
161. What is one "therm"?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The term "therm" is used to describe an energy volume of 100,000 BTU most often associated with natural gas.
162. What must a technician do to convert a propane gas furnace to natural gas?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
To convert from propane to natural gas it is necessary to change the orifices to larger ones because natural gas has less BTU per cubic foot and is operated at a much lower pressure.
163. The high limit safety on a condensing furnace ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The high limit safety shuts the burner down in the event that the furnace is operating outside of its designed temperature range. The safety switch only shuts the burner down allowing the fan to continue running to cool the furnace.
164. What is the purpose of a flame rod?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The flame rod is the smaller of two electrodes in the control circuit. The control emits an AC current which completes its circuit through either the pilot flame or main flame as a rectified DC current to the flame rod.
165. Number 2 fuel oil produces a maximum CO2 of approximately ____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The maximum CO2 produced by fuel oil number 2 is 15.6 % and is based on the ultimate analysis of the fuel.
166. A technician is servicing an oil fired furnace equipped with a cad cell primary control. The control locks out after 30 seconds. Which of the following can cause this to happen?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The cadmium sulfide cells resistance decreases with exposure to light from the flame. The change in resistance stops the heating of the bimetal safety switch allowing the burner to continue its heating cycle. If the cadmium sulfide cell does not sense light from the flame the bimetal safety switch is heated and the safety trips stopping the burner due to a lack of flame.
167. If oil has a high viscosity __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Viscosity is defined as "a fluids internal resistance to flow". The thicker the oil, the greater is its resistance to flow. Viscosity is affected by temperature. As the temperature of a fluid decreases its viscosity increases.
168. When a cad cell is sighting flame, its resistance should be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The cadmium sulfide cells resistance decreases with exposure to light from the flame.
169. When a cad cell is located in the dark, its resistance is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The cadmium sulfide cells resistance increases in the absence of light.
170. What two flame detection devices are used in oil fired primary controls?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The bimetal control and the cadmium sulfide cell are the primary flame detection devices for oil burners.
171. What device is used on an oil burner motor to protect from an excessive load?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The manual reset overload protector trips when excessive load is experienced by the motor.
172. Which of the following can cause the oil burner motor overload protector to trip?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
If the oil pump is seized, excessive load is placed on the motor. If the overload condition lasts too long, the overload protector trips.
173. A one-pipe oil supply system _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When installed, the bypass plug routes unused oil back to the oil tank. In the case of single pipe systems, if the bypass plug is installed and there is no return path for the oil to get to the tank, and excessive pressure is applied to the pump shaft seal causing the seal to rupture, oil will leak.
174. What is the purpose of a delayed oil valve?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The delayed oil valve delays pressure to the nozzle until the pump has reached full RPM. The delayed oil valve is not pressure sensing only time delayed by electrical resistance. The delay of oil helps prevent smoking on burner start up.
175. What is the purpose of the barometric damper used on oil fired furnaces?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The barometric damper controls stack draft and flow of combustion gases through the heat exchanger by allowing dilution air to enter through its opening. The introduction of dilution air reduces the negative pressure applied to the heat exchanger thereby reducing the flow of combustion gases through the heat exchanger.
176. What does a high smoke reading of 5 or greater indicate on an oil-fired furnace?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A high smoke reading of 5 or greater is indicative of a lack of primary air for combustion of the fuel. Most likely it can be attributed to an improperly adjusted primary air band or shutter. The lack of primary air can be caused by several things other than just the primary air adjustment. Dirty burner tubes, dirty burner fan and poorly sealed burner components and burner housing are a few examples of other causes for high smoke readings.
177. One gallon of No. 2 fuel oil contains approximately:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Number 2 fuel oil has an approximate BTU value of 140,000 per gallon.
178. Single stage fuel pumps should be used when the ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Single stage fuel pumps are recommended for gravity fed installation where the fuel tank is above the burner.
179. For gravity fed installations where the oil tank is above the fuel pump there should be _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
On installations where the tank is installed above the fuel pump there should be no measured vacuum. A vacuum measurement would indicate there is a restriction in the fuel delivery line or the fuel filter.
180. When testing a fuel unit cut-off, the pressure at the nozzle port should ______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
With a pressure gauge connected directly to the nozzle port on the pump, the pressure on shut down should never be more than 20% below the pump set operating pressure.
181. What is the BTU input of an oil-fired furnace that uses a .65 GPH nozzle?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
To calculate the BTU input for nozzle sizes above and below one gallon per hour, multiply the BTU value of the fuel by the nozzle size.

140,000 x .65 = 91,000 BTU/hr.
182. A customer has replaced a mercury bulb thermostat. The furnace heats the house, but tends to cycle on and off several times per hour. What is the most likely cause?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The heat anticipator is a small resistor located close to the bimetal sensing element, and changes the cycle time by generating a small amount of heat which shuts the furnace down early in anticipation of residual heat remaining in the heat exchanger once the burners have stopped. If the anticipator is set to low, the burners shut down before the house is close to its temperature set point. Once the resistor heat dissipates, the furnace cycles on again to finish heating the home.
183. What is the rapid oxidation of any material classified as combustible matter called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Combustion is the rapid oxidation of any material classified as combustible matter.
184. For combustion of solid or liquid fuels ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fuel does not burn in a solid or liquid state. It is the combustible vapors which burn.
185. Water has a specific gravity of 1. What is the specific gravity of number 2 fuel oil?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Number 2 fuel oil has a specific gravity between .84 and .87 compared to water which has a specific gravity of 1. This makes fuel oil lighter than water.
186. What is the chemical formula for propane?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The chemical formula for propane is C3H8.
187. Propane is heavier than air, with a specific gravity of ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Propane has a specific gravity of 1.52 and is heavier than air.
188. Flash point is ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a sufficient quantity of vapors will ignite when exposed to a source of ignition.
189. What is pour point?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pour point is the temperature at which oil will barely flow. ASTM standards list the maximum pour point temperature for number 2 fuel oil as 20 degrees Fahrenheit.
190. What is the flash point temperature of #2 fuel oil?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
100°F is the minimum flash point for fuel oil #2 as specified by ASTM Standard D396-02. Flash point is the minimum temperature at which a sufficient quantity of ignitable vapor forms on the surface of a heated liquid fuel.
191. What percentage of earth's air is oxygen?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The largest volume gases in the earth's atmosphere are oxygen 20.95% and nitrogen 78%. There are many other gases in the atmosphere.
192. Perfect combustion is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Perfect combustion is the burning of fuel with the exact amount of air to change all the carbon and hydrogen molecules into the products of combustion, with no CO or O2 remaining. Perfect combustion is not achievable with current technologies being used. Any attempt to achieve perfect combustion will result in excess levels of carbon monoxide.
193. The products of combustion are the gases that are formed _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The combustion gases are formed during the chemical mixing of carbon hydrogen and oxygen. During the combustion process hydrogen bonds with oxygen to form water vapor (H2O) and carbon bonds with oxygen to form carbon dioxide (CO2). So the combustion gases are comprised of CO2 and H2O. There is also nitrogen in the combustion gases though the nitrogen is not created during the combustion process. It comes from the air which is comprised of oxygen and nitrogen.
194. On a gas manifold assembly, where is the "air-fuel mixing zone" located?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
On a gas manifold assembly. the air fuel mixing zone is after the orifice inside the burner. The gas velocity creates a slight negative pressure inside the burner tube. This negative pressure sucks the air for combustion into the burner tube where the air and fuel mix prior to exiting the burner head.
195. Which of the following is the most abundant in earth's atmosphere?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The earth's atmosphere largest volume gases are oxygen 20.95% and nitrogen 78%. There are many other gases in the atmosphere.
196. Natural gas needs to reach a concentration between which of the following ranges to become combustible?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The range of flammability of natural gas is between 4 and 14 percent when mixed with air. Air is a mixture of oxygen and nitrogen. Mixtures above 14 or below 4 are either too rich or too lean to burn.
197. If the combustion process is complete, how much carbon monoxide should be measured in the flue gases?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
If combustion is complete there should be minimal or no carbon monoxide measured in the flues gases of the appliance.
198. An increase of gas pressure will cause a (an):
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Increasing the gas pressure increases the venturi affect created by the flow of gas into the burner. This increase will increase the volume of air pulled into the burner to mix with the fuel. If the pressure is increased too much gas spillage may occur as the burner venturi may not be large enough to accommodate the increased volume of fuel and air.
199. Flame speed, in most cases can __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Flame speed for a natural gas Bunsen type flame is 11 inches per second and can only be estimated by a technician. Flame speed is affected by the temperature of the flame and the volume of excess air supplied to the flame.
200. It is critical that the flow-rate of flue gases is _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Heat exchanger efficiency is based on a controlled flow rate of hot combustion gases through the heat exchanger. Manufacturers carefully design furnaces to supply a specified heat output. Heat output and furnace efficiency is dramatically reduced if flue gas flow is not properly controlled.
201. A good vent draft reading on a category I natural gas furnace is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A good vent draft pressure for a category I natural gas furnace is -.02 to -.04 inches of water column.
202. Turbulation of hot flue gases helps _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Turbulation of flue gases is designed by the manufacturer of the furnace and is specific to achieve the manufacturers designed rate of heat transfer and heat output of the furnace.
203. In what unit is carbon monoxide measured?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Carbon monoxide is measured in parts per million and 1 percent is equal to 10,000 part per million.
204. Natural gas produces a maximum CO2 of approximately ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Natural gas produces a maximum CO2 of 11.7% based on the amount of methane in the fuel.
205. What does carbon monoxide bond with when it is inhaled into the lungs?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When carbon monoxide is inhaled into the lungs, it bonds with hemoglobin in the blood to form carboxyhemoglobin.

Electric Heat 

206. The electric heat element is usually made of what material?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Heat elements are made of Ni-chrome which is nickel and chromium. They are combined to create a resistance wire.
207. Which of the following is an example of a resistive load?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A resistive load is an electrical load in which voltage and current are in phase and are converted to energy in the form of heat. Other examples of a resistive load are electrical heaters and incandescent bulbs.
208. Which of the following is an example of an inductive load?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An inductive load is an electrical load which has a large inrush of current when first energized. Following a few cycles or seconds the current will fall to normal full-load running current when the magnetic field is at its maximum. An inductive load is any load which has a coil of wire.
209. An electric furnace is marked 230/240-single phase-60 Hz. The power supply reads 205 VAC. What should the technician conclude?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The voltage is too low based on 10% tolerance of the voltage; 10% of 230 is 23 volts and 230 - 23 equals 207. The 205 measurement is below that tolerance.
210. The limit switch on an electric furnace is usually a (an) ______________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The limit switch is an auto reset switch acting on temperature and snap action.
211. How many BTUs are produced by one kilo watt of electricity?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
One watt of electricity will produce 3.413 BTUs of heat. A kilo watt is 1000 watts. Therefore, 1000 x 3.413 = 3413 BTUs.
212. A technician reads 38 amps with a clamp-on ammeter on a forced air furnace. The supply voltage is 240 volts AC. Approximately how many watts is the furnace using?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wattage is equal to volts times amps. Therefore, 240 x 38 = 9,120 watts. To determine kilo watts, divide the result by 1000.

9120 ÷ 1000 = 9.12KW
213. A furnace is using 25,800 watts of power. What is the approximate KW rating?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Kilo watt is equal to wattage divided by 1000. Therefore, 25,800 ÷ 1000 = 25.8KW
214. A thermostat used on an electric heat furnace will ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Heating stats work off the principle of open circuit on temperature rise and closed circuit on temperature fall.
215. What safety is used by most electric heat elements to prevent overheating?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Most electric heaters are protected by auto reset snap disc that operate on temperature and a fusible link which operates off the principle of over current and heat. The fusible or thermo fuse is sized by current and temperature.
216. A technician measures 50 amps on a single-phase electric heater. The supply voltage is 240 volts AC. Approximately how many BTUs is the furnace producing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wattage is equal to voltage times amps and BTUs are equal to wattage time 3.413. Therefore,

240 x 50 =12,000 watts

12,000 x 3.413 = 40,956 BTUs.
217. The COP (coefficient of performance) for electric resistance heat is ______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
COP is ratio of the heating provided divided by the electrical energy consumed. For electric heat the ratio is 1 to 1.
218. Most heating elements are mounted on which type of insulator?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ceramic or mica insulators are used when electrical insulation is necessary for high heat applications.
219. A 10 kW electric heater operating at 250 volts draws approximately 40 amps. What will a 10 kW heater wired to 500 volts draw?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
10,000 watts divided by 250 volts equals 40 amps. 10,000 divided by 500 volts equals 20 amps.
220. What are two major factors in determining the temperature rise of an electric furnace?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The formula for temperature rise is based on the sensible heat formula:

BTUs = 1.08 x CFM x ΔT

Therefore, ΔT = BTUs divided by (1.08 X CFM)
221. What is a major cause of electrical heat element failure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Low air flow will cause the elements to overheat and trip the overloads or fuses. Without proper airflow across the heater elements the furnace will fail.
222. A 10 kW heater installed in a 2 ton central air conditioning and heating furnace should have an air flow of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Air flow is usually based on 400 CFM per ton for cooling; heating is slightly lower in the problem above 600 to 800 CFM.
223. A technician is installing a 3-ton cooling system with a 15 KW electric furnace with 1st stage 10 KW and 2nd stage 5 KW . The thermostat would require wiring with a minimum of________ conductors.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A five conductor thermostat wire should be used when a two stage heat thermostat is used.
224. A 800 CFM furnace operating with a 10 kW heater at 230 volt AC would have a temperature rise of_____________ °F.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
 ΔT is equal to BTUs divided by (1.08 x CFM).

Therefore, 10,000 x 3.413 = 34,130

34,130 ÷ (1.08 x 800) = ΔT

34,130 ÷ 864 = 39.5
225. When removing any high voltage component, for safety, the technician must ______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
As a matter of safety, always lock out and tag out the power panel.
226. The heating elements in a single phase 15 kW heater are usually wired in _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The elements are always wired in parallel, usually 5 and 10 KW.
227. The contact points on an energized heater relay are being checked by a technician using a volt meter. If a small voltage is detected across the contacts, this would be an indication of ____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When measuring across the contacts of a relay or contactor there should be no voltage reading. If there is a voltage reading, the contacts are usually pitted and not making a good connection.
228. Which of the following best describes a fusible link?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The fusible link is designed to be a once and done type fuse to protect the furnace from overheating and creating damage.
229. A technician takes the temperature rise of an electric furnace. What is being measured?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sensible heat is being measured since there is no moisture being added or removed.
230. Circuit protection of _________ amps is used for each 5 kW of heat.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A 30 amp breaker is used for each 5 kW of heat and 60 amps is used on 10 kW.
231. What type of motor must always use a mounting strap?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Resilient mounted motors are insulated from the frame due to rubble mounts used to reduce noise. Therefore, a grounding strap must be used to ground the motor.

Residential Heat Load Calculation 

232. An oversized heating and cooling system can cause which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Over sizing a system will cause short cycling which will cause moisture problems. In the summer, not enough moisture will be removed making the structure uncomfortable with very poor energy usage. In the winter, the system will not heat up enough causing moisture to condense in the heat exchanger, as well as the venting system, shorting the life of the system.
233. When the temperatures of a structure both inside and outside are equal, there is _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In order for heat to transfer there must be a difference in temperature. This follows the second law of thermodynamics. (Heat travels from a warmer area to cooler area.)
234. Heat moves at a rate relative to ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In order for heat to transfer there must be a difference in temperature based on the second law of thermodynamics. (Heat travels from a warmer area to cooler area.)
235. Doubling the thickness of an insulating material while maintaining temperature difference, the rate of heat transfer will be ________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Heat transfer through insulation is inversely proportional to a conducting material. Therefore, doubling insulation will half heat transfer.
236. What is Low Emittance (E) Glass?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Low-emittance (low-E) coatings are microscopic metal or metallic oxide layers deposited on a window glazing surface primarily to reduce the U-factor by reducing radiative heat flow. Multiple types of low-E coatings have been designed to allow for a given solar gain, high to low.
237. A blueprint scale is 1/8 inch equals 1 foot. The actual measurement on the blueprint measures 7/8 inch. What is the true length?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Based on 1/8 equals a foot, 7/8 of an inch would equal 7 feet.
238. What are some wind pathways for air penetration during heating season?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wind may enter a building during the heating season through slab openings for pipes, cracks or openings in walls, windows and door leaks, holes in wall plates for electrical, pipe and entertainment conductors, as well as roof openings.
239. The human body will produce approximately how much sensible heat at rest?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Based on Manual J, the human body will give off approximately 300 to 500 BTUs of heat when resting.
240. An area of an external wall which allows light to pass through is referred to as _____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fenestration refers to the design of an opening in a building or wall envelope. Fenestration typically includes windows, doors, vents and skylights.
241. What is the normal sequence to calculate the cumulative conductivity for a cross section of building materials?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Based on Manual J, 1 divided by the sum of R values for the different types of building materials will equal the U value. The U value, times the temperature difference, times the square footage, is used to determine the BTU heat gain or loss.
242. Which of the following is the reciprocal of "U" value?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The inverse of U Value is the R value.
243. The term Building Envelope encompasses which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The building enclosure is the physical divider between the interior and the exterior environments of a building. It serves as the outer shell to help maintain the indoor environment by working in conjunction with mechanical heating and cooling systems to provide human comfort.
244. Which of the following has the lowest R Value?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
By taking the reciprocal of each U valve:

Fiberglass - 1/.053 = R value of 18.87

Drywall - 1/.20 = R value of 5

Blown fiberglass - 1/.091 = R value of 10.99

Closed cell foam - 1/.042 = R value of 23.81

Therefore, the drywall has the lowest R value.
245. What are three basic types of Insulation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
There are various types of insulation commonly found in residential buildings. Different types of insulation also have different R-values, which measure the effectiveness of the insulation. This is based on the thickness of the insulation. There are various types of insulation on the market, but the three most commonly used types are loose-fill insulation or blanket insulation, reflective and spray foam insulation.
246. Temperature difference between the inside and outside of a structure and "R" value are _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Temperature difference (ΔT) and "R" values are the major factors used in Manual J for calculating heat loss or gain calculations.
247. Transmission heat loss is ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Transmission heat loss occurs through walls, glass, ceilings and floors of a building envelope. The design coefficients of heat transmission are provided for commonly used construction materials in Manual J.
248. Which of the following is considered an infiltration load?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Infiltration is the unintentional leakage of outside air into a building, typically through cracks in the building envelope and through window and doors. Infiltration is often referred to as air leakage.
249. To control comfort level and efficiency it is necessary to control the rate of ventilation air. What is ventilation air based on?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ventilation air is based on number of occupants and infiltration rate as per manual J calculations.
250. What do the terms awning, bay and bow casement refer to?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The different types of windows that are often found in a house or building include the following: bow casement windows, double hung windows, awning windows, picture windows, bay windows, jalousie windows, French windows, hopper windows and sash windows.
251. Elevation changes greater than a few hundred feet can _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Elevation changes can significantly change the design conditions based on temperature change, wind speed or other environmental conditions.
252. You are using a blueprint with a scale of 1/4 inch = 1 foot. You measure 5 1/8 inches for an exterior wall with a ruler. What is the actual length of the wall?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A measurement of 5 1/8 inches, using a blueprint with a scale of 1/4 inch = 1 foot, would be equivalent to 20 and half feet.
253. A window designed for sloped or horizontal installation in the roof of a residential building to provide day-lighting and/or ventilation, and may be fixed or operable, are called ______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Skylights are light transmitting fenestration, a portion of the roof of a building space. Skylights are used to convey abundant daylight, by providing a connection to the outdoor environment.
254. The Set point (inside temperature) = 70°F and outside temperature = 60°F. If the outside temperature changes to 50°F, what happens to the rate of heat transfer?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
With the indoor temperature set at 70°F and the outdoor temperature at 60°F, the ΔT is 10° (70 - 60). When the outdoor temperature changes to 50°F, the ΔT become 20° (70 - 50). Therefore, the rate of heat transfer is doubled.
255. What is blower door test equipment used for?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A blower door is an apparatus used to measure the air tightness of a structure. It is also used to measure airflow between building zones. There are three primary components to a blower door: (1) a calibrated, variable-speed fan, capable of inducing a range of airflows sufficient to pressurize and depressurize a variety of buildings; (2) a pressure measurement instrument, (manometer), to simultaneously measure the pressure differential induced across the fan and across the building envelope, based on fan airflow; and (3) a mounting system, used to mount the fan in a building doorway.
256. Find the heat gain for the exposed knee-wall. The building is 40 ft. wide with an exterior wall height of 10 ft. The roof has a 9 on 12 pitch. Insulation R-11 Outdoor Summer design 92°F Indoor design 72°F Attic temperature 130°F
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The first step is to find the area of the exposed knee wall; this would be calculated by taking the pitch and one half of the wall (20 x 9) 180 inches or 15 feet then multiply (15 x 40) divided by 2 which would equal 300 ft2. Next find the u value of the insulation: 1/11 =.091; then find the ΔT (130 - 72) = 58°. U factor times ΔT times square footage equals Btu (.091 x 58 x 300) = 1,583.4.

Low-GWP Refrigerant Safety and Training 

257. What process is used to transfer refrigerant from a sealed system to a refillable cylinder (recovery tank) approved by the Department of Transportation (DOT)?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Recovery is the process of transferring refrigerant from a sealed system to a refillable cylinder (recovery tank). Cylinders used for refrigerant recovery must be approved by the DOT. The refrigerant recovery process, when properly performed, minimizes the release of refrigerant to the atmosphere and the harmful environmental affects that may result.
258. A reclaimer receives from an HVAC repair company different refrigerant types that are mixed in the same tank. What will happen in this circumstance to the mixture?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A reclaimer that receives a tank of mixed refrigerant may not have the technology to recycle or reclaim the refrigerant to AHRI-required purity levels. In these instances, the refrigerant is destroyed at the owner's expense.
259. A recovery tank should not be filled beyond what percent of its capacity under federal standards?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Department of Transportation standards state that a refrigerant recovery tank should not be filled beyond 80% of its capacity, allowing room for refrigerant expansion.
260. What is the required recovery level for most residential and light commercial heat pump and air conditioning systems containing less than 200 pounds of either R-22 or R-410A?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
According to the EPA recovery efficiency chart published in section 608 of the Clean Air Act, a system that contains less than 200 pounds of a high-pressure refrigerant must be recovered down to 0 psig.
261. Refillable cylinders that are certified may typically be used for how many years before they must be hydrostatically tested?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Refillable cylinders are typically certified for 5 years of use before they must be hydrostatically tested. Once tested at a reclamation facility, they will be stamped with a new date.
262. What complex process involves the cleaning, filtering and testing of a refrigerant to meet the "like-new" purity level specified in AHRI Standard 700?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Reclamation is a complex process that cleans and filters a refrigerant to meet the "like-new" purity level specified in AHRI Standard 700. Reclaimed refrigerant is tested, labeled, and certified for resale as reclaimed refrigerant by a reclamation facility.
263. What are the two most common non-condensables found in HVACR systems?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Air and nitrogen are the two most commonly encountered gases during the installation, service, and maintenance of HVACR systems that are classified as non-condensable.
264. Which of the following methods should be used when sizing and selecting system components for equipment that is charged with a zeotropic or near-azeotropic refrigerant blend?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When sizing and selecting system components for equipment that is charged with a zeotropic or near-azeotropic refrigerant blend, the midpoint should be used. Midpoint is the average temperature of a coil, either condenser or evaporator, in a system charged with a blended refrigerant.
265. Which of the following values should be used when calculating the subcooling of a system charged with a zeotropic or near-azeotropic refrigerant blend?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When calculating the subcooling of a system charged with a zeotropic or near-azeotropic refrigerant blend, the liquid phase (bubble point) values are used.
266. Which of the following values should be used when calculating the superheat of a system charged with a zeotropic or near-azeotropic refrigerant blend?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When calculating the superheat of a system charged with a zeotropic or near-azeotropic refrigerant blend, the vapor phase (dew point) values are used.
267. Department of Transportation (DOT) rules prohibit smoking within how many feet of a cylinder containing a flammable gas?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The DOT requires that, when transporting flammable refrigerants, vehicles be equipped with a Class B (Dry Powder) fire extinguisher and that smoking not be permitted within 25 feet of flammable gases.
268. When working with flammable refrigerants:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
According to industry standards and codes, a fire extinguisher must be present on a jobsite where flammable gases (such as refrigerants) will be used.
269. What must take place prior to beginning work on a jobsite where equipment that is charged with a flammable refrigerant will be used?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
According to industry standards and codes, a jobsite where flammable gases (such as refrigerants) will be used should be evaluated for relevant hazards prior to the work beginning.
270. Which of the following refrigerants is a zeotropic refrigerant blend?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Near-azeotropic refrigerant mixtures (NARMs) and zeotropic blends make up the 400 series (R-404A, R-410A, etc.) refrigerants.
271. What stage of the evacuation process removes moisture from a system through evaporation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Refrigeration system evacuation is a combination of two processes: degassing and dehydration. The removal of moisture from a system is called dehydration.
272. Which of the following is classified as an A2L refrigerant?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
R-32 is classified as an A2L refrigerant in ASHRAE Standard 34. R-290, R-441A, and R-600a are classified as A3 refrigerants.
273. What may form if small amounts of moisture react with the refrigerant and oil in the system?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Systems that have been subjected to moisture, air, or other contaminates, may experience a chemical reaction that produces acid when exposed to excessive heat.
274. Which of the following refrigerants is exempt from the EPA's recovery mandate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Natural refrigerants such as propane (R-290) and CO2 (R-744) are exempt from EPA recovery requirements under section 608 of the Clean Air Act.
275. A refrigerant oil that is hygroscopic will:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All refrigerant oils are hygroscopic, meaning that they absorb moisture. Care should be taken to limit their exposure to the atmosphere, no more than 15 minutes is recommended.
276. Which of the following refrigerants is classified as an A3 refrigerant?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Isobutane (R-600a) is classified as an A3 refrigerant in ASHRAE Standard 34.
277. What can occur when one or more of the refrigerants in a blend leaks at a faster rate than other refrigerants in the blend?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fractionation occurs when one or more of the refrigerants in a blend leak at a faster rate than other refrigerants in the blend. This can change the composition and chemical properties of the refrigerant resulting in poor performance. Fractionation only occurs in zeotropic and near- azeotropic refrigerant blends because they are not pure compounds and do not behave as such.
278. Which of the following is a metric that is used to measure a refrigerant's environmental impact as a greenhouse gas?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A metric that is used to measure a refrigerant's environmental impact as a greenhouse gas is Global Warming Potential (GWP). GWP was established to provide comparisons of the global warming impacts of different gases over a period of time. Carbon Dioxide (CO2 - R-744) is used as the baseline measurement for global warming potential and has a value of 1.
279. A2L refrigerants have a flammability potential that is higher than:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Refrigerant flammability is represented with a number: 1, 2L, 2, and 3. 1 is the lowest flammability and 3 is the highest flammability.
280. Which of the following refrigerants has the lowest global warming potential (GWP)?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
R-744 (CO2) has a GWP of 1, the lowest GWP of the refrigerants listed here.
281. What type of refrigerant blend behaves like a single compound refrigerant?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An azeotropic refrigerant blend behaves like a single compound refrigerant. It follows a single pressure/temperature chart and does not separate into its component parts, or fractionate, with a change in pressure, temperature, or both.
282. R-407C pressures and temperatures are similar to ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
R-407C is similar to R-22 pressures and temperatures but has slightly lower efficiency.
283. What is a possible result of charging a high fractionation refrigeration system until the sight glass is clear?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Technicians attempting to clear the sight glass when charging with high fractionation refrigerant can lead to overcharging and have poor system performance or possible compressor damage.
284. Removal of refrigerant from a system can be accomplished by these two basic methods:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Active and passive are the approved methods of recovery as specified by the EPA.
285. To find the correct condenser saturation temperature for a given pressure of 407C, it's best to use:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Manufacturers have devised new pressure temperature charts for saturated pressure and temperature. When superheating use the dew point and when sub-cooling use the bubble point.
286. Technicians handling liquid refrigerant should wear gloves and ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
It is important that technicians receive proper safety training and become familiar with OSHA policies and other federal and state regulations as well as company policies.
287. For commercial and industrial refrigeration systems, a _____ annual leak rate is considered a substantial leak.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Annual leak rates are specified by the EPA in the 608 Clean Air Act.
288. What is an advantage of ester-based oils such as Polyolester?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
POE lubricants are completely wax free and have a proven track record of mixing with HFC refrigerants.
289. In a refrigeration system, oil and refrigerant ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The refrigerant and oil mix in the compressor and are entrained throughout the system by the pressures both high and low.
290. Which refrigerant has an ozone depletion potential of zero?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
R-134 has no chlorine and, therefore, would have zero ozone depletion potential.
291. What is ozone depletion caused by?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Scientists have discovered that Chlorine and Bromine are two chemicals that contribute to ozone depleting. The EPA requires that these ozone depleting chemicals be phased out and replaced.
292. If R-410A is ingested:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ingestion is unlikely due to the physical characteristic of the substance. Do not induce vomiting unless instructed by a physician.
293. The receiver bypass:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A receiver bypass is often used to bypass sub-cooled refrigerant around the receiver and route it directly to the liquid line. This method will help refrigerant from losing its sub-cooling while being stored in the receiver.
294. Polyolester lubricants (POEs) are used extensively with ___________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Manufacturers have determined that POE lubricants are best suited for hermetic and semi hermetic compressors when using chlorine free refrigerants.
295. R-407C has _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
R-407C is a near-azeotropic ternary blend of hydrofluorocarbons refrigerants. It contains difluoromethane (R-32), pentafluoroethane (R-125) and 1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane (R-134a) which all have different pressure temperature relationships.
296. Which of the following is true about Polyalkylene Glycol (PAG) Oils?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
PAG oils have poor aluminum on steel lubricating abilities. PAG oils can be harmful if inhaled in certain concentrations. PAG oils attract and retain moisture making them very hygroscopic.
297. Polyolester (POE) oils stored in plastic containers will _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Polyolester (POE) Oils are very hygroscopic and must be stored in a metal containers. Plastics containers may be permeable to moisture.
298. What can an overcharged system cause?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An overcharge of refrigerant can cause pressure to increase by over feeding the evaporator and refrigerant backing up in the condenser.
299. Whenever possible, to avoid fractionation, charging of a refrigeration system incorporating a near-azeotropic blend should be done with __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Charging a refrigeration system incorporating a near-azeotropic blend refrigerants must be charged as a liquid in order to avoid fractionation.
300. The temperature of a single compound at 100% saturated vapor with no superheat is _____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Refrigerants that are a single compound will follow the pressure temperature saturation chart.
301. A liquid changes to a vapor by absorbing __________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Any time there is a change of state it is always accompanied with latent heat without a change in temperature.
302. Temperature glide can range from:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Temperature glide can range from 0.2 for 410A to 10 for 407C refrigerants.
303. Why can an R-410A system be topped off after a leak?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
R-410A is a near azeotropic blend and has a temperature glide of less than 0.3°F.

Green Awareness 

304. What is a carbon footprint?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A carbon footprint is an estimate of how much carbon dioxide is produced to support a person's lifestyle. Essentially, it measures an individual's impact on the climate based on how much carbon dioxide the person produces. Factors that contribute to a carbon footprint include the individual's travel methods and general home energy usage.
305. What is energy management?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Energy management is a very broad term used to cover the entire field of energy and its use. Energy management can be subdivided into more specific areas such as purchase utility, energy consumption and energy demand.
306. What is renewable energy?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Renewable energy is a repeatable source of energy, and should not be confused with sustainable energy. An example of renewable energy is ethanol.
307. Sustainable energy is defined as a _______________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sustainable energy are sources of energy that will not be depleted in the time frame relevant to the human race, such as nuclear, wind, solar, geo-thermal and tides.
308. What is an energy audit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An energy audit is an accounting system and analysis for energy usage and energy conservation in a structure or building.
309. In an energy audit, both energy demand and energy consumption must be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Once an energy audit is conducted, an analysis must be performed on energy consumed to improve the energy usage and efficiency.
310. Which of the following is a source of sustainable energy?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sustainable energy are sources of energy that will not be depleted in the time frame relevant to the human race, such as nuclear, wind, solar, geo-thermal and tides.
311. Heating and cooling efficiency ratings such as SEER, EER, COP and HSPF are regulated by what organization?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
These are government ratings and measurements that are used to gauge the capabilities and energy efficiency of heating and cooling equipment. Efficiency standards for all heating and cooling units in the U.S. are governed by U.S. law and regulated by the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE).
312. What organization sets the ventilation standards for acceptable indoor air quality in tight structures?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
ASHRAE Standard 62-2001 establishes the standard of care for the design of commercial, institutional and residential ventilation systems to "provide indoor air quality that will be acceptable to human occupants and is intended to minimize the potential for adverse health effects." Building codes in most states reference Standard 62, either in part or in its entirety, as part of their definition of minimum ventilation requirements.
313. What is passive cooling?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Passive cooling is the movement of air due to natural convection and the use of outdoor shading; warmer air is replaced by cooler air entering at ground level and rising as heated air.
314. What are two types of thermal storage?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Thermal energy storage comprises a number of technologies that store thermal energy in energy storage reservoirs for later use. A system that uses ice directly is usually called a tank system, and a system using plastic balls for storage is called cell system.
315. Waste-heat recovery systems can be adapted to air conditioning systems for ______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A waste heat recovery unit is an energy recovery heat exchanger that recovers heat from hot gas of the refrigerant before it enters the condenser to preheat water in a water heater.
316. What type of system uses the earth as both a heating and cooling medium?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Geothermal heat pumps uses the earth as both heating and cooling medium for absorbing and releasing heat to the ground from the refrigerant.
317. What is the cost of electricity based on?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The cost of electricity is based on wattage usage in a given time period, usually one month.
318. What is a Green Alternative for producing massive amounts of electrical energy?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Nuclear energy makes it easier for the utility companies to comply with the "Clean Air Act of 1970." Pollutants and greenhouse gases produced by coal, fuel oil and natural gas have a greater impact than spent uranium fuel rods to the environment.
319. To produce the voltage necessary for a process ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fuel cells can be arranged or stacked to produce the needed voltage and current requirements for large applications.
320. Which of the following is true about the power generated by wind turbines?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The power produced by wind turbines must be altered for use by the power grid; the frequency and power factor must be changed by capacitor banks in order to make the generated power compatible.
321. What is "Tidal and Ocean Energy"?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
By using the oceans or rivers current power can be produced by the use of submerged turbines.
322. Modern bulbs for lighting are rated in _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Modern light bulbs are rated in lumens rather than wattage used for incandescent lamps. The higher the lumens the greater the light output.
323. When in use, which of the following appliances use the most kW/H?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The water heater and clothes drier would have the highest energy consumption as compared to all others.
324. How much of all the available water on the planet is fresh water?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Of all the water available on our planet less than 2.5% is fresh water, three quarters of which is frozen or otherwise not attainable. Only 0.3 percent is available for use in the form of rivers and lakes, most of which are polluted in some way, requiring treatment before drinking.
325. Showers can use as much as:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Showers can use as much as 22% of the water used in homes. High efficiency shower-heads use approximately 1.5 to 2.3 gallons of water per minute.
326. Water closets or toilets, used in commercial buildings, consume approximately what percentage of water?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Water closets in commercial buildings consume approximately 50% of the water used.
327. Insulating the water heater and hot water piping is _________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
One of the easiest ways to make an immediate impact on energy saving is to insulate an efficient water heater or replace an inefficient water heater. Insulating the hot water piping will also improve energy savings.
328. The On Demand Water Circulation System:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
On demand water circulation systems will deliver hot water immediately without cold water waste.
329. What testing method is used to check a building for air leakage?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The blower door test uses a fan to increase or decrease the building pressure to a set point and measuring the cubic feet of air to achieve the required pressure.
330. What testing method is used to check air conditioning and heating ducts for air leakage?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The duct pressure test uses a fan to increase or decrease the air pressure to a set point and measuring the cubic feet of air to achieve the required pressure.
331. What is used to check how well a building retains the conditioned air from heating or cooling?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An infrared camera indicates temperature ranges in different colors. Warm areas of a building are indicated by shades of red and cool areas by shades of blue.