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Practice Test for the DANB Dental Assistant Exam

General Chairside Assistance 

1 A permanent dentition consists of how many teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
32 teeth make up a permanent dentition.
2 Which teeth are sometimes called the "eye" teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Canine teeth are sometimes called "eye teeth."
3 Which proximal surface of a tooth is closest toward the midline of the body?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mesial is the closest proximal tooth surface toward the midline of the body.
4 A permanent dentition consists of how many premolars?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
8 premolars exist in a permanent dentition
5 When a mouth is divided into fourths, the parts are referred to as:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Quadrants are the four parts when a mouth is divided into four sections: upper right, lower right, upper left and lower left.
6 Using the Universal System of tooth designation, what tooth is #12?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tooth #12 is the maxillary left first premolar.
7 Using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording, which tooth is #25?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Maxillary left second premolar is #25 when using the ISO system of tooth recording
8 What is the structure that connects cementum to the alveolar bone?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periodontal ligament is the connective tissue fibers that encircle the tooth, attaching the cementum to the alveolar bone.
9 A gold crown is marked by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diagonal lines through the crown indicate a restoration made of gold material
10 A dental assistant is preparing to chart a new patient's treatment plan for the doctor. Treatment provided in a previous dental office should be charted in what color?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Black ink is appropriate for charting treatment completed by a previous provider
11 Two red vertical lines drawn between the upper central incisors on a patient chart would indicate:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diastema - a space between the upper central incisors
12 The recommended technique for determining a patient's pulse or respiration rate is to:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Measure for 30 seconds, then multiply by 2, for a rate per minute.
13 In order to determine how much to inflate a blood pressure cuff for an accurate reading, a dental assistant measures the patient's BPM brachial pulse rate and adds ______ to determine the inflation level in mm Hg.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
40 mm Hg should be added to the brachial pulse rate in order to determine the inflation level during a blood pressure reading.
14 An average adult respiration rate is _______________ breaths per minute
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
10-20 is the average adult respiration rate.
15 What is the normal pulse rate in a resting adult?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
60-100 bpm is the normal pulse rate in a resting adult.
16 Standard practice provides, and some state laws require, that a signed privacy policy be kept in a patient's file for a minimum of _______ year(s).
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
General dental assistant guidelines recommend that dental practices keep a signed privacy policy in a patients file for at least 6 years. Some state laws set the minimum at 5 years.
17 Which of the following is not a part of a dental examination?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Health history review is not a part of a dental examination> However it should be considered when assessing the patient's needs.
18 What classification of decay is located on the gingival third on the facial or lingual surfaces of teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Class V decay is smooth surface decay located on the gingival third of affected teeth.
19 While examining a patient, a dentist says he sees Class IV decay. Which of the following teeth would he be looking at?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Incisors (and canines) are the only teeth to be diagnosed with class IV decay.
20 The area also known as the neck of the tooth is more appropriately called the:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
CEJ - cementoenamel junction is the junction of tooth enamel with cementum at the neck or cervix of the tooth.
21 What type of tissue covers alveolar bone, attaching to the teeth at the margin of the gumlines?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Epithelial attachment is the gingiva that covers alveolar bone and attaches to teeth at the margin of the gumlines.
22 What is the tissue that divides the nasal cavity into 2 parts?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Septum is the tissue that divides a nasal cavity through the middle into 2 parts.
23 Which nerve is the primary nerve for the mouth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Trigeminal nerve is the main nerve supply to the mouth. It has both maxillary and mandibular innervation.
24 The pituitary gland is part of what body system?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Endocrine is the system which regulates glands that produce hormones, including the pituitary gland.
25 What position places the chair back until the patient is almost lying down?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Supine is when the patient is lowered until almost lying down
26 What is the best method of identifying working positions by a dental auxiliary?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Clock concept - dividing the treatment area into zones help to identify appropriate working positions.
27 When transferring an instrument to the dentist, the dental assistant should:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A dental assistant should transfer the instrument with the working end facing themselves. This allows the dentist to receive the instrument in a way that allows immediate use without the need for adjustment.
28 When retrieving an instrument from a right-handed operator, the assistant uses the ______________ finger(s) of their left hand.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The last 2 fingers of the hand are used for retrieving instruments from the operator
29 Most of the time, a dental assistant will be working in what "time zone" during a treatment procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
2-4 is the "time zone" that most dental assistants will spend the majority of their time in during procedures.
30 Which chair has a foot bar for support?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Assistant's stools have a foot bar for support.
31 The High Volume Evacuator tips should be placed slightly _______ to the tooth being prepared.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The High Volume Evacuator tips should be placed slightly distal to the tooth being prepared. This frees up operator line of sight and is more efficient at saliva removal.
32 What isolation method is appropriate for one or several teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dental dam is an appropriate isolation method for one or several teeth.
33 An adult male arrives for a scheduled root canal and crown appointment. The dental assistant prepares the instrument tray and equipment when he is seated. What size hole punch is needed for premolar and canines on a dental dam?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
No. 3 hole punches are appropriate for premolar and canines when preparing a dental dam.
34 When removing a dry cotton roll from the mouth:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Moisten a dry cotton roll with water before removal, to prevent cotton from adhering to the dry mucosa in the mouth.
35 Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of N2O2?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Anemia is not a contraindication for the use of N2O2.
36 What part of the gas machine houses the nitrous oxide and oxygen to combine them together for the patient to breathe?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Reservoir bag is the chamber that houses the 2 gases for combination prior to the patient drawing them in for a breath.
37 Nitrous oxide has been used on a patient. For how many minutes afterward should the patient remain on 100% Oxygen?.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
5 minutes is the appropriate length of time for patients to remain on 100% oxygen after having been administered nitrous oxide during a treatment procedure.
38 Which of the following is an approved method by the Center for Disease Control for re-capping a used needle?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Both a and b are appropriate methods for needle re-capping and recommended by the CDC.
39 A long needle, 1 5/8" in length, is used for what type of injections?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mandibular block injections require the use of the "long" needle.
40 What type of injection involves the tissues near the apex of a tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Infiltration is the technique that is used when injecting anesthetic around a tooth to affect the tissues around and near the apex of the tooth.
41 Which of the following is NOT a health concern when it comes to selecting the appropriate form of local anesthetic?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Joint replacement is not a health concern to be considered when selecting the form of local anesthetic to use.
42 What is added to an anesthetic agent to lengthen the effect by decreasing blood flow?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Vasoconstrictors act by constricting the blood vessels thereby decreasing blood flow in the area and lengthening the amount of time that the local anesthetic is active in that location.
43 How long should topical anesthetic be applied to the mucosa prior to an injection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
2-5 minutes is the appropriate length of time that a topical anesthetic should be left on the mucosa before injections for local anesthetic.
44 What may be added to burs in order to shorten preparation time by improving cutting ability?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diamond stones are added to the working surfaces of burs, to improve cutting ability.
45 Which of the following burs would be appropriate for a crown-prep setup tray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A flame-shaped bur would be an appropriate option to place on a crown-prep tray, as it is used to help make adjustments in crown preparations.
46 Low speed handpieces are used for
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Prophy angles are used on low speed handpieces.
47 What type of handpiece operates at speeds of up to 450,000 rpm?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A high-speed handpiece operate at up to speeds of 450,000 rpm.
48 A 16-year-old female has an appointment for an MOD amalgam on #14. What instrument is used to carve amalgam on the occlusal surface of a tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diskoid/cleoid is used to carve the amalgam into an anatomical appearance on the occlusal surface of teeth.
49 Which of the following is Not a step in sealant placement?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fluoridation is not a step in sealant placement. Sealant placement includes isolation, preparation, conditioning, placement and curing.
50 Which of the following would a bristled brush style prophy angle NOT be appropriate to use on?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dentin is not appropriate for the use of bristle brush prophy angles because they are very abrasive on the soft dentin's surface.
51 What type of stain is on the surface of enamel and may be removed through hand scaling or rubber cup polishing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Extrinsic stains are those on the outer surface of the teeth, which may be polished or scaled off.
52 A dental assistant who is approved to perform expanded functions prepares to perform coronal polishing on a patient after the hygienist has done the scaling. What is done to ensure the prevention of removing small amounts of enamel during coronal polishing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Selective polishing - or only polishing teeth where stain is visible on the functional crown, should be polished.
53 A gingival retraction cord:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A gingival retraction cord extends the impression area slightly below the finished preparation. This widens the sulcus area around the tooth and gently pushes the gums back for a more accurate impression.
54 Which of the following can help prevent hemorrhage during a crown prep procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Saturating the retraction cord in astringent and vasoconstrictor helps to control hemorrhage during a crown prep procedure by constricting blood vessels near the cord.
55 Which of the following would contraindicate a partial denture?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periodontal disease which may threaten remaining teeth would contraindicate a partial denture. This is because the patient may be at risk to lose these teeth and then be in need of another appliance, such as a full denture.
56 Which of the following is the metal extension on a partial denture, which rests on the alveolar ridge and holds the artificial teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A saddle is the metal mesh which extends over the alveolar ridge to support artificial teeth, and covered in acrylic.
57 When taking a shade for a dental appliance, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Teeth should be wet during shade matching - teeth appear a different shade when they are completely dry and this shade would not be appropriate for matching the rest of the teeth as they will always be coated in saliva.
58 What is the amalgam material that helps hold a fixed restoration in place?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Core buildups are made of amalgam and used to add enough structural support to hold a fixed restoration such as a crown.
59 What type of restoration is made of a pontic with wing like frame extensions that fit on adjacent teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Maryland and bonded bridges are the same type of restoration, with a pontic tooth that is supported with wing-like frame extensions that are bonded to adjacent teeth.
60 What term refers to the tooth that support a bridge?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Abutment refers to the supporting teeth.
61 Which of the following is not an example of a cast restoration?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Partial dentures are not examples of cast restorations. A cast restoration is made of porcelain or gold and fits on a prepared tooth.
62 Which of the following is the most widely used periodontal dressing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Noneugenol dressing is the most commonly used periodontal dressing, because it has a smooth surface and rapid set time.
63 Which of the following is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gingivectomy is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue.
64 What instruments converts high frequency sound waves into rapid vibrations for clinical use?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ultrasonic scalers use high speed sound waves that transform into mechanical energy, allowing for the easy removal of calculus on tooth surfaces.
65 Which of the following is not for use when removing calculus deposits below the gumline?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sickle scalers are not appropriate for use below the gumline, they are designed for use on supragingival calculus.
66 A patient arrives for a scaling and root planing procedure on his upper right and lower right quadrants. Which of the following people in the dental office may measure periodontal pockets?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Only a dentist and hygienist may measure periodontal probing depths.
67 A patient with moderate to severe periodontal disease is seen for their periodontal maintenance appointment. Upon examination, the patient exhibits mobility in localized areas. Moderate mobility would be recorded as a ____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Two on a scale of mobility describes moderate mobility.
68 Periodontal probing depths of 5-7mm are indicative of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Moderate periodontitis will have probing depths that are recorded in the 5-7mm range.
69 The inflammation of gingival tissue is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gingivitis is the inflammation of gingival tissue.
70 To what degree can a mouth be affected with periodontal disease and the disease be considered localized?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
30% or less of a mouth being infected is considered a localized periodontal disease infection.
71 A 14 year old male presents with large MO decay on #19. There is enough decay evident on the bitewing film to show that the patient will be in need of a crown. What is done in an attempt to save a pulp in cases where a root canal may not be necessary?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pulp caps may help save the tooth pulp by placing a covering over the exposed or nearly exposed pulp during a restorative procedure.
72 What is the reason for performing debridement during a root canal procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are reasons for performing debridement of a root canal.
73 The ADA standard of care recommends the use of a dental dam for endodontic treatments. After placing the dam, the next step required is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
After placing the dam, the next step is disinfecting the dam and clamp with an iodine solution (or a sodium hypochlorite solution may be used as well).
74 What solution is used as a sealer in deciduous teeth that undergo a pulpotomy?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Formocresol is used to seal deciduous teeth.
75 What instrument has small barbs along the shaft and is used to remove pulp tissue?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Broaches are useful for removing pulp tissue or fragments of paper points within a root canal.
76 Which of the following is not an appropriate irrigation solution in endodontic procedures?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alcohol is not an appropriate irrigation solution.
77 A patient comes into the office for an endodontic procedure. What is the minimum number of radiographs needed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Four radiographs is the minimum number needed to complete an endodontic procedure.
78 Which of the following is not a root canal sealer that is used to seal unfilled voids?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gutta percha is not a root canal sealer. It is a root canal filling material.
79 What is used to absorb the irrigating solution during an endodontic procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Paper points are used to dry the inside of endodontic canals.
80 During a surgical scrub, hands and forearms should be scrubbed with a surgical scrub brush for how long?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Seven minutes is the appropriate length of time to scrub hands and forearms with a surgical scrub brush.
81 During the extraction of an impacted tooth, what instrument is used to retract tissue away from the bone?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periosteal elevator is the instrument that retracts tissue away from the bone during an extraction.
82 Following an surgical scrub, hands should be kept:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Above waist level is where hands should be kept following a surgical scrub.
83 What flat working instrument used for extractions has large cutting grooves?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bone files are flat working instruments with large cutting blades and are used to smooth the surface of alveolar bone.
84 Which of the following is not a surgical procedure commonly performed in general dental practices?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Extraction of impacted 3rd molar is not a common procedure in general dental practices.
85 Forceps are held using the:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Palm grasp is the correct grasp to use when holding forceps
86 A dry socket occurs when:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A blood clot fails to form properly
87 Which of the following materials is not an absorbable suture material?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Polyester fiber is not an absorbable suture material, it is non-absorbable material.
88 What describes the reshaping of bone between adjacent teeth that have been extracted?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alveoloplasty is when the bone is recontoured and smoothed in the alveolar ridge when adjacent teeth have been extracted.
89 Surgical instruments are all considered to be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Surgical instruments are all considered to be critical and all must be sterilized after use.
90 A tooth that has come out completely due to trauma or injury is said to be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Avulsed is the term used when a tooth completely comes out of the socket in one piece.
91 Which of the following is not a type of stainless steel crown?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Festoon means to be trimmed, but it is not the terminology used to describe a type of stainless steel crown.
92 When the coronal portion of a dental pulp is removed from a primary tooth, the procedure is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pulpotomy removes the infected area of the pulp but leaves healthy pulp tissue within the primary tooth.
93 Preventive orthodontics provided by a pediatric dentist include which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are examples of preventive orthodontics offered in a pediatric dental environment.
94 Which of the following is unique to pediatric dental offices?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Open treatment bays are unique to pediatric dental offices, helping children to feel less shut in than a small operatory.
95 Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until they are able to expectorate. This prevents swallowing of fluoride.
96 The emphasis of pediatric dentistry is on all of the following EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Treatment of developing permanent teeth is not an emphasis of pediatric dentistry.
97 A 5 year old male arrives for an MO composite on #K. What matrix band is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for use on primary molars?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
T-band matrixes are copper t-shaped matrix bands commonly used on primary molars.
98 What type of crown is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for badly decayed teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Stainless steel crowns are used primarily in pediatric dentistry.
99 Which of the following are the most frequently injured primary teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Maxillary central incisors are the most frequently injured primary teeth.
100 What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Class II bites show the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
101 What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Class III bites show the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
102 What are thin wires used around brackets that hold arch wires in place?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wire ligatures are the thin wires that twist around brackets to hold an arch wire in place.
103 What helps to bring about movement between maxillary and mandibular arches?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Elastics help bring about movement between maxillary and mandibular arches.
104 A dentist needs to guide an arch wire into place. What orthodontic instrument should be used?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Weingart utility pliers are used to guide arch wire into place
105 Which of the following directions can orthodontic treatment move a tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are directions that orthodontic therapy can move a tooth.
106 Which of the following is not an ingredient in amalgam fillings?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Steel is not an ingredient in amalgam fillings.
107 Which of the following is not a common type of cavity liner?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Potassium fluoride is not a common type of cavity liner
108 A 35 year old female is having an incisal chip on #25 repaired. What is applied to the surface of a tooth to prepare for the use of bonding material?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Etch is applied to the tooth in order to prepare it for retention and bonding of material.
109 What type of cement is used for permanently cementing a cast to a tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Luting agent is- a permanent cement which is used in a very thin coat to permanently cement casting to a tooth.
110 Bonding is greatly improved when etch is used on the surface of dentin to remove:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The smear layer is a thin layer of debris that remains after a tooth is prepared for treatment.
111 What cement material is used for most temporary restorations?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
IRM, or intermediate restorative material, is the most common cement used for temporary restorations.
112 Which cement releases fluoride at a slow rate, inhibiting decay?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Glass ionomer cements release a slow flow of fluoride into the tooth, reducing risk of recurrent decay.
113 Which of the following is the only material listed that is appropriate to mix on a paper mixing pad?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Calcium hydroxide is appropriate for mixing on a paper pad. Amalgam must be mixed in a machine while the other 2 materials listed must be mixed on a glass slab.
114 A ______ and ______ are needed when creating a proper contour of a new restoration.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Matrix, wedge - Both necessary in order to properly create an anatomical contour for new restorations
115 When preparing a matrix band, which edge has a shorter circumference?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gingival edges are shorter than the occlusal edges, because the neck of the tooth is narrower than the occlusal crown portion.
116 Which of the following is NOT true in regards to home whitening treatments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Whiteners will remove some surface stains from restorative materials but will not remove stains or color from in a restorative material. Whiteners will only affect the tooth structure, not restorative materials.
117 Wedges are not needed for Class ____ matrix systems.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wedges are only used for class II, III and IV matrix systems.
118 What thin, tooth-colored restorative material is bonded directly to the tooth in order to improve the appearance?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Veneer is the tooth colored material that is bonded to a tooth in order to improve the overall appearance.
119 Which of the following is used for anterior composite fillings?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Clear plastic matrix are used for composite fillings on anterior teeth.
120 What is used along with bonding material when a tooth is badly broken down?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A retentive pin helps along with bonding material to restore teeth that are badly broken down.
121 Which of the following would NOT be needed for a varnish application set-up?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Curing lights are not needed for the application of a varnish.
122 Etching requires approximately how long in order to thoroughly etch the tooth structure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
15-30 seconds is the typical time required by etch manufacturers for the material to thoroughly etch the tooth surface.
123 Which of the following is not a type of impression?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Temporary is not a type of impression. There are only 3 types of impressions and those are preliminary, final and occlusal registration
124 What type of material is an irreversible hydrocolloid that is the material of choice for taking a preliminary impression?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alginate is a gelatinous material that is ideal for preliminary impressions.
125 What material is used to create diagnostic casts when strength and accuracy of the model are not critical?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Model plaster - this is used because it is easy to trim and handle
126 Which of the following is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Exposure to light is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products. However, the others listed do affect it.
127 What is predominately used to show the occlusion relationship between arches?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wax bite registration is a soft, pliable material that allows the occlusion surfaces of teeth to easily be recorded.
128 A mandibular alginate impression usually requires how many scoops of alginate powder?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Two scoops of alginate powder are usually needed for a mandibular impression.
129 When taking a final impression of a tooth, the _________ form of viscosity is chosen for application directly into the sulcus of the prepared tooth.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Light body viscosity is used for application directly into the sulcus of the prepared tooth. This allows it to flow easily into the margins and details of the prepared area.
130 When taking a final impression, which of the following is not necessary for the set-up tray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alginate impressions are not used for taking final impression
131 Mineralized bacteria on the tooth surface is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Calculus is mineralized bacterial plaque
132 De-minerlization of the tooth is caused by the loss of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Calcium and phosphate loss results in tooth demineralization
133 What is made up of glycoproteins in saliva and forms on the surfaces of teeth within minutes?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pellicle is the thin layer made up of glycoproteins from saliva which deposit themselves on the surfaces of teeth in a rapid manner.
134 When gingival infection extends to the alveolar bone, it is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periodontitis is a more severe form of gingivitis, which affects the alveolar, or supporting bone structure around the tooth.
135 Which of the following is a risk factor for developing periodontitis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are risk factors for developing periodontitis.
136 Soft toothbrush bristles are preferred for brushing. What is the reason?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Are less likely to cause damage to the gums and tooth structure. Bristles that are too hard can cause gum recession and toothbrush abrasion, so using a soft bristled brush helps prevent these.
137 What educational aid temporarily colors plaque for more effective removal?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Disclosing agents, usually in a tablet or liquid form, are used to color bacterial plaque and aid in proper brushing techniques that show the patient how to remove plaque more effectively.
138 What is the most commonly recommended toothbrushing method that helps target plaque below the gumline?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bass method is the most recommended method of brushing which targets plaque at and below the gingival margin.
139 Which type of floss is most effective in plaque removal?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
None of the above. While there are various types of floss, research fails to show that one type is more effective at plaque removal than any of the others.
140 When brushing, a toothbrush should be placed at what angulation toward the gumlines?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
45 degrees angulation is the preferred method of brushing.
141 __________ pressure should be used when brushing.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Light pressure should be used during brushing in order to reduce gum recession and tooth abrasion.
142 Fluoride may sometimes be found in:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above. Depending on location, natural fluoride may appear in the water and soil of certain areas. Food that is grown in these areas will also contain fluoride, or it may be found in animal meat.
143 Which of the following would not contain a topical fluoride?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Water is not a topical source of fluoride. It is a systemic source.
144 When a tooth decalcifies and then remineralization occurs, which of the following is NOT accurate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
That the enamel will be weaker than surrounding tooth enamel is not accurate. The enamel may actually be harder than other areas once it is re-mineralized.
145 Young children exposed to long-term overuse of fluoride may develop what on developing permanent teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fluorosis is the long-term exposure to overuse of fluoride, which causes white spots on developing teeth.
146 Optimum concentrations of fluoride in municipal water systems should be in what range?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
7 to 1.2 ppm is the recommended concentration of fluoride in municipal water supplies.
147 Which of the following are NOT at a high-risk to develop caries?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Children ages 6-16 are not necessarily at an increased risk to develop caries compared to other groups.
148 What is used by the body as the chief source of energy?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Each gram of carbohydrate supplies 4 calories and is the body's main source of energy.
149 What vitamin assists the body's ability to absorb calcium?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium, strengthening bones and teeth.
150 Which of the following is not a vital sign?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Weight is not considered a vital sign.
151 What common medical emergency occurs when blood flow to the brain slows and causes the patient to lose consciousness?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Syncope, otherwise known as fainting, is one of if not perhaps the most common medical emergency in a dental office, resulting from slowed blood flow to the brain.
152 Postural hypotension may occur when:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All are risk factors for postural hypotension - a lack of blood flow to the brain that often occurs when the patient sits up quickly.
153 When does hyperventilation occur?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When a patient takes in too much oxygen due to frequent breaths caused by anxiety or stress.
154 What is a neurologic disorder that causes seizures, and is normally controlled with medication?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Epilepsy is the medical condition that consists of neurologic disorders which cause recurrent seizures.
155 Which of the following is NOT correct?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hyperglycemia is an elevated level of blood glucose levels.
156 What heart condition is painful but does not usually cause death?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Angina pectoris is a painful occurrence when the heart is deprived of oxygen. It usually does not result in death, but it is a sign that the person may have other cardiovascular health problems.
157 What is anaphylaxis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Swelling and blockage of air passages, anaphylaxis is a common result of severe allergic reactions.
158 A localized allergic response may include all of the following except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Drop in blood pressure is not a side effect of a localized allergic response.
159 Which of the following supplies contain an allergen that might cause an allergic reaction in some patients?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Rubber dams contain latex and may trigger an allergic reaction in some patients
160 Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a medical emergency?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Patient nervousness is not a warning sign of a medical emergency. If a patient becomes so nervous that they begin experiencing warning signs as a result, then there should be an elevated awareness of emergency prevention.
161 Who is in charge of the emergency response protocol in a dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The dentist is in charge of the emergency response protocol in a dental office.
162 Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a medical emergency?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Uneven respiration is not a symptom of a medical emergency, it is a sign. Symptoms include something the patient is experiencing which they must tell you about and cannot be observed.
163 A patient begins to experience hives and difficulty breathing. Which of the following emergency drugs would be appropriate for use in an allergic reaction?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Epinephrine is an emergency drug that should be kept on hand in the case of an allergic reaction.
164 Which of the following is an example of an appropriate item to keep in an emergency drug kit for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are examples of glucose products that are appropriate to use in the case of an emergency with a hypoglycemic patient.
165 During a bonding procedure for teeth #8 and 9, a patient begins experiencing trouble breathing. What position should the patient be put in?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Be placed on 100% oxygen, and then have other vital signs monitored.
166 What color are oxygen tanks in the dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Oxygen tanks are universally green in color, to prevent a mix-up of other gases.
167 Which of the following is not part of the standard of care for dental personnel emergency training?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Administration of intravascular drugs is not part of the standard of care for dental personnel emergency training.
168 Which of the following is NOT an example of a staff role during a medical emergency?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Call and notify patient's next of kin is not an example of a staff role during a medical emergency. Initial life support roles such as calling 911, retrieving the drug kit and assisting with CPR are specific staff roles that should be designated by the dentist should a medical emergency occur in the office.
169 A patient faints in the dental chair. They should be placed:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
If a patient faints, the patient should be placedin a reclined position with the head slightly lower than the feet. This encourages blood flow to the brain in an attempt to revive the patient.
170 A patient begins to experience a seizure while in the dental chair. Which of the following is NOT appropriate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Placing a prop or suction in the patient's mouth to prevent them from biting their tongue is not appropriate. Nothing should be placed inside of a person's mouth when they are experiencing a seizure.
171 Which of the following is NOT appropriate when responding to a patient experiencing chest pain?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Allow the patient to sit until pain subsides, then allow a family member to escort them home is not appropriate when responding to a patient experiencing chest pain.
172 What color are nitrous oxide tanks?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Nitrous oxide tanks are universally colored blue to prevent a mix-up of other gases.
173 _______ refers to what you should do in a given situation.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ethics refers to what you should do in a given situation. Most boards have set forth a minimum standard for license holders. Ethics are voluntarily set standards.
174 _______ refers to what you must do in a given situation.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Law refers to what you must do in a given situation. A behavior may be unethical and still be legal.
175 What type of supervision is used when the dentist is physically present in a dental office and delegates a procedure to the assistant to be completed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Direct supervision is when the auxiliary performs a procedure that is delegated by the dentist, and the dentist is still physically present inside of the building.
176 Which of the following is not a concept of risk management to prevent malpractice suits?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Following OSHA regulations is not a step of risk management in regard to malpractice suits. OSHA protects employees in the workplace.
177 Implied consent differs from written consent. Written consent _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Written consent documents the patient's consent and understanding of the treatment procedure.
178 Which of the following is NOT included in a patient's chart?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Financial information is not part of a patient's dental chart.
179 A dental assistant marks the wrong amount of Lidocaine used in a patient's chart. Which of the following is an appropriate method of correcting a patient's record?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Drawing a line through the text is the only appropriate method of correcting a patient's record.
180 Who owns a patient's records and radiographs?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The dentist is the owner of dental records and radiographs. Patient's may be able to request copies, but they do not technically own them.
181 Approximately 65% of child abuse cases involve:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The head and neck are involved in approximately 65% of all child abuse cases. This is why dental professionals should have an awareness and understanding of recognizing signs of abuse.
182 A patient that has not been seen in the office for at least 5 years is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An inactive patient is a patient that has not been into the office for at least 4 or 5 years, even if they have a chart on file.
183 When scheduling appointments inside of a practice management program, most time units are made up of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
10-15 minutes is the average unit of time that is used when blocking out appointments in a computerized schedule.
184 What act specifies the regulations that ensure privacy related to a patient's healthcare information?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
HIPAA is the act that protects a patient's privacy regarding their healthcare information.
185 HIPAA is an acronym for:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act uses the acronym HIPAA
186 Failing to maintain a recall system will result in:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Unscheduled hygiene patients will be a result of an unmaintained recall system.
187 Who in the dental office is ultimately responsible for reporting child abuse cases?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All staff members are responsible for reporting suspected child abuse victims. The responsibility does not fall on the discretion of a single individual.
188 What organization is responsible for regulating dentistry and those that practice it within each state?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The state dental board is responsible for regulating dental providers practicing within their state boundaries.

Infection Control 

189 Which of the following is NOT a mode of disease transmission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sexually transmitted is not a mode of disease transmission. It is a type of transmitted disease.
190 Which Hepatitis virus should healthcare personnel be immunized against?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hep B immunization is an effective vaccine that healthcare workers should be given to prevent the risk of occupational exposure.
191 Which of the following diseases can be spread through contaminated water supplies?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Legionnaire's Disease can be spread through aerosols as well as aspirating contaminated water.
192 A patient experiences an infection where symptoms appear quickly and are severe. What type of infection is this?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Acute infections are often very quick to appear and have severe symptoms.
193 A patient presents with symptoms of an oral yeast infection. What condition could have caused this infection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Oral candidasis is a yeast infection of the mouth, sometimes called "thrush."
194 What is a microorganism called that is capable of causing diseases?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pathogens are organisms that are capable of causing disease conditions.
195 Which disease is an example of one caused by a spore?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tetanus, also called "lock jaw" is a disease that is caused by spore bacteria.
196 Which of the following does not determine how pathogenic an organism is?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The type of bacteria does not determine how pathogenic an organism is. Virulence, Concentration, Host resistance and Portal of Entry are some of the determining influences.
197 A patient is experiencing increased stress due to a recent illness that has impacted her normal routine. What type of infection could have entered the body and then lie dormant until triggered by conditions such as stress?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Latent infections lie dormant in the body until conditions like fever or illness cause the virus to become active.
198 Which of the following is not a portal of entry for splash or splatter disease transmission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Intact skin is a natural protective barrier and is not a portal of entry for splash or splatter disease transmission.
199 A patient has a bloodborne disease. Which of the following is not a disease that the dental professional is concerned about contracting through contact with blood?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tuberculosis is not a bloodborne disease it is an airborne bacterial disease.
200 Which hepatitis virus is not transmitted by bloodborne bacteria?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hepatitis A is the fecal-oral transmittable form of heptatitis, and is the least serious of these viruses.
201 A dentist is treating a patient with a porcelain crown on #4. Which of the following dental equipment does not create an aerosol exposure to the dentist during use?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dental suctions do not create aerosol exposures during use.
202 Which of the following modes of disease transmission is also known as cross-contamination?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Indirect transmission is also known as cross-contamination. It happens by the indirect transferring of a pathogen by touching contaminated surfaces and then another area like the eyes or mouth.
203 Which of the following conditions is the least threatening to dental personnel when it concerns the risk of transmission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the other conditions are highly contagious, and while HIV contamination should be prevented, it is not as big of a concern in regards to disease transmission in a dental office setting.
204 A patient states that they have contracted Herpes, and asks if there are signs of the virus in the mouth. After questioning the patient it is determined that the virus strain was contracted through sexual activity. Which herpes virus is sexually transmitted?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Herpes Simplex 2 is transmitted through sexual contact.
205 The OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard guides employees to protect themselves from all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tuberculosis is not a bloodborne disease, but all of the other viruses listed are conditions that the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard helps employees protect themselves against.
206 Dental assistants are to treat each patient as if they were infected with a bloodborne illness. This precautionary method is called
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Universal precautions are the standard in which all patients are treated as if they are infected with a bloodborne disease.
207 CDC standard precautions include care taken around all of the following EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Intact skin is not considered a potentially infections mechanism of disease transmission.
208 Which of the following is not a category of occupational exposure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Indirect is not a category of occupational exposure. Direct, percutaneous and permucosal are all categories of occupational exposure.
209 A dental assistant receives a needlestick when attempting to re-cap a used needle during a dental procedure. Needlesticks or cuts in the skin are what type of occupational exposure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Percutaneous exposures are when the skin has been perforated and exposed to blood or possible infectious material.
210 An assistant is re-capping a used needle after a treatment procedure. What is the appropriate method for the assistant to use when re-capping?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Using a single handed re-capping technique will prevent accidental needlestick with a used needle.
211 Employee medical records, including proof of Hep B vaccination, should be kept by the employer for how long?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Duration of employment, plus 30 years, is the recommended length of storing confidential medical records on employees. These must be stored in a secure, locked location.
212 An assistant has seated a patient, assisted with the procedure, and just excused the patient following the treatment. When should handwashing occur?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hands must be washed before gloving up, after gloving up, and any other time that a contaminated object may have accidentally have been touched.
213 All of the following help to minimize cross-contamination EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bar soap does not help to minimize cross-contamination. It may actually be a surface that transmits bacteria or other contaminants.
214 When conducting an inventory of PPE equipment, a dentist should make sure all of the following items are available to staff EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All other items listed are considered PPE.
215 Higher levels of PPE should be used for which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Room clean-up will expose the employee to more contaminants than the other examples, therefore higher levels of PPE, such as gloves, should be worn.
216 PPE requirements state that:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fluid-resistant material must be used for lab coats. This can include disposable jackets or cotton or cotton/poly blend material.
217 Bloodeborne pathogen standards state that protective clothing:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
May not be taken home to be laundered. Laundering PPE that has been contaminated is the responsibility of the employer.
218 A hygienist is changing her surgical mask after seeing a patient for a deep cleaning. When should a surgical mask be changed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Surgical masks must be changed between patients.
219 When selecting PPE for an assisting procedure, which of the following is NOT an option for protective eyewear?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Prescription eyewear is not an acceptable means of personal protective equipment. Glasses must have solid side shields.
220 What can reduce mask filtration?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Moisture reduces the filtration abilities of masks. Contact with the mouth or splatter reduces filtration.
221 What kind of gloves are sterile?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Surgical gloves are sterile and should be worn for invasive procedures.
222 In which of the following situations should utility gloves be worn?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Utility gloves should be worn during instrument sterilization.
223 A patient presents himself with a latex allergy. Which of the following type of gloves would be appropriate for the assistant to use?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Nitrile gloves would be an appropriate latex-free glove option for the patient with a latex allergy.
224 Items like gloves, masks, eyewear and uniforms are considered:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) are things like masks, gloves and eyewear that protect employees from possible exposure to pathogens in the office setting.
225 An assistant discards of a certain piece of waste in its own container. What type of waste is this?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Biohazardous waste is harmful to people and the environment, and must be disposed of properly in appropriate containers.
226 A dentist chooses sterile gloves for a procedure. Which of the following procedures is the dentist most likely about to perform?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Implant placements are surgical, invasive procedures and sterile gloves should be worn instead of non-sterile examination gloves.
227 Which agency's role is to issue standards that protect the health of employees?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
OSHA is a regulatory agency and their goal is to keep safety standards in place that protect employees from possible accident or injury.
228 What law is the most important when it comes to protecting employees against exposure to disease in the dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is established by OSHA to protect employees from pathogens that are bloodborne.
229 A recall patient has cold sores on his lip that have begun to scab over. Cold sores are a type of what kind of infection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Latent infections are those that come and go, such as viral infections like the herpes simplex virus, which causes cold sores.
230 Splatter from the ultrasonic scaler makes contact with the hygienist's eye because she was using inappropriate PPE. What type of exposure is this?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Permucosal exposures are those that come into contact with the mucous membranes like the eyes.
231 A health care professional visits their doctor for vaccination due to occupational exposure risks. What type of immunity is achieved when someone is vaccinated and their body creates the antibodies against a disease?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Active artificial immunity is when the body does not have antibodies and then develops an artificial immunity to it after having been administered a vaccine.
232 An assistant is cleaning up an operatory following a crown procedure. There are used mixing pads on the tray. What type of waste is this?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Routine waste like mixing pads, paper towels or headrest covers are examples of general waste that may discarded with regular waste like paper or other trash.
233 The dentist extracts a patient's 2nd bicuspids for their orthodontic treatment. Extracted teeth are a type of what kind of waste?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pathologic waste is a type of infectious waste and should be disposed of appropriately in accordance to state and local laws.
234 The office staff are unloading the most recent supply of delivery boxes. As packages are opened, the assistant gathers specific sheets to include in an office binder. What is the information sheet called that contains health and safety information about chemicals used in the dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
MSDS stands for Material Safety Data Sheets and they should be kept on file for every chemical that is in the office.
235 A patient breaks out into a rash after coming into contact with the dentist's latex glove. What is this reaction called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Contact dermatitis is when the skin breaks out after coming into contact with something that is an irritant or allergy to the person.
236 An assistant is dressing in the morning to prepare for work. Which of the following is appropriate to wear in the dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Simple wedding bands are ok to wear in the dental office. Large jewelry and artificial nails, however, can harbor bacteria, which can contribute to direct or cross-contamination of the individual or others they interact with.
237 An assistant is helping a dentist perform an extraction. The assistant needs to touch something not associated with the treatment. What gloves should be worn?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Overgloves are to be worn over treatment gloves to prevent cross-contamination to other areas inside of the operatory when they are needed for use.
238 An assistant is preparing a treatment room for the next procedure. During this preparation, she sets out PPE for herself and the doctor. Does the same PPE need to be worn for all patient procedures?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
No, it depends on what risk of exposure the procedure is. A filling does not require the use of surgical gloves, but an implant procedure would.
239 One of the staff members in the office refuses to receive the Hepatitis B vaccine. This employee must:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Employees that refuse to receive Hep B vaccination must sign a waiver to be kept on file with their employer.
240 A dentist hires a new assistant to replace the one that just moved to another state. What must he provide free of charge to his employees?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The Hep B vaccine must be provided free of charge by an employer to each employee in the office if they are reasonably likely to be exposed to blood or infectious disease during the course of their work. This is a requirement of OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard.
241 Which of the following is capable of causing disease?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pathogens are disease-causing organisms. The other answers are examples of infections, viruses or infection causing organisms, but they do not cause disease.
242 A patient has a poor immune system and becomes infected with a disease-causing pathogen. This patient may develop a(n):
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Opportunistic infections occur in instances where someone with a depressed immune system come into contact with pathogenic bacteria and are not able to suppress an infection.
243 An assistant is cleaning up the operatory following a crown seat procedure without wearing gloves. If transmission of a pathogen occurs, what type of transmission would it be?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Indirect transmission is when a person comes into contact with pathogenic microorganisms by handing contaminated surfaces or equipment, which can then be spread to themselves via contact with the face, or to other people.
244 Biohazardous waste must be discarded by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All biohazardous waste must be placed into specially marked separate bags with the biohazardous waste symbol, then disposed of appropriately based on local laws and regulations.
245 Dental employees are at a biggest risk to pathogen exposure by what type of transmission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Direct contact with blood or saliva from a patient is the biggest concern to dental employees when it comes to disease transmission
246 Which of the following can reduce a patient's ability to transmit disease during a dental procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pre-rinsing with an antimicrobial mouthwash can help to reduce the number of bacteria in a patient's mouth, limiting exposure to pathogens from splatter or direct contact.
247 A patient contracts a disease but then recovers. Their body has formed what type of immunity?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Naturally acquired immunities are those that the body develops when it has been exposed and develops a disease, heals itself, and then develops a natural immunity to the disease so that it does not become infected again.
248 In order to follow OSHA requirements appropriately, a dental assistant must have routine training in all of the following EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
HIPAA is not part of OSHA regulatory laws to protect the health and safety of employees in the dental office.
249 When cleaning off a treatment tray, the dental assistant must dispose of waste appropriately. Which of the following is NOT an example of biohazardous waste?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Exam gloves are not usually saturated in blood, nor do they cause an increased risk of exposure as sharps or blood saturated items would.
250 What is the term that is used to describe how strong a disease-causing organism is?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Virulent or virulence is how strong and capable a pathogenic microorganism is when it comes to causing disease.
251 An infectious disease causes:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tissue damage is caused by infectious disease due to damage by the pathogenic microorganisms.
252 Which of the following is NOT important in regards to an ideal sterilization area?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While enough room for appropriate equipment and supplies is needed, the size of sterilization areas is not important. That is important is that it is used only for the purpose of instrument processing and is a separate area from the rest of the office.
253 When removing used equipment and instruments from a treatment tray, what type of gloves should the dental assistant select to wear?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Utility gloves are heavy duty and help protect staff from harmful, sharp instruments on a treatment tray.
254 Which of the following equipment is NOT necessary for a dental assistant to wear when transporting used instruments from the treatment area to the sterilization area?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Masks are a type of PPE but they are not necessary when transporting used equipment from a treatment room to the sterilization area.
255 The schedule is backed up and the dental assistant is not able to clean the used instruments immediately. The instruments should be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The instruments should be placed in a holding solution. This prevents residue from hardening up on instruments or the risk of them coming into contact with something or someone else.
256 When unloading the autoclave, the assistant is not sure whether or not it has been run. What is used on an instrument package to show if the enclosed instruments have been sterilized or not?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Chemical indicators on the instrument package show when the enclosed instruments have been properly sterilized. These may be on the package already, or a separate strip placed on the package.
257 When loading or unloading the sterilizer, which of the following is NOT something that needs to be considered?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All instrument packages should be placed in single layers, so that the steam or chemical solution can reach them adequately.
258 Quality assurance in regards to sterilization includes which of the following:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Training, Record-keeping and Maintenance are all parts that should be considered in a quality assurance program in regards to instrument sterilization.
259 An assistant is putting on PPE to perform sterilization procedures. When should a mask be used as part of this routine?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When hand scrubbing instruments, it may be possible to be exposed to splatter or water droplets and it is necessary to wear a mask as part of the PPE.
260 A staff member is assembling treatment trays for the day. What gloves are appropriate for this purpose?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Exam gloves are appropriate when assembling treatment trays with sterilized instrument packets.
261 An assistant keeps protective eyewear in their lab coat pocket throughout the workday. At what times should they be worn?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
At any time when handling used instruments. This includes transfer of the used treatment tray to the sterilization area up to the loading of the autoclave.
262 What is the area where soiled instruments are held?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The sterilization area has a contaminated area that includes counter space, sinks, holding solution and ultrasonic cleaner where the contaminated instruments are processed prior to sterilization. Nothing but soiled instruments should be placed in this area.
263 Which of the following is NOT an example of precleaning:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Holding solution is not an example of precleaning. Holding solution should only be used when there is not enough time to immediately clean and process instruments.
264 When selecting precleaning methods for a new office sterilization area, which of the following methods is the least desirable for cleaning instruments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hand scrubbing is the least desirable method of cleaning instruments. Hand scrubbing puts people at an increased risk for contamination due to direct contact with the instruments.
265 What method of precleaning instruments uses cavitation, or the bursting of bubbles, to remove debris from soiled instruments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ultrasonic machines produce sound waves that cause cavitation, resulting in the mechanical removal of debris from instruments.
266 An assistant must package all instruments prior to sterilization in order to reduce the risk of contamination when they are removed. Which of the following is NOT appropriate in regards to instrument packaging?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The reuse of standard sterilization wraps is not approved by the FDA. Wraps should only be used once and then discarded.
267 One of the team members is creating a check-off list for office duties that include preparation of the sterilization area on a routine basis. At least how often should the ultrasonic cleaner be changed out?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The ultrasonic cleaner should be changed out at least once a day. Ultrasonic cleaning solution can become dirty very quickly, and may even need to be changed out up to twice a day.
268 Which of the following destroys all microbial forms:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sterilization destroys all microbial forms. The other methods may destroy some types of bacteria, but they do not destroy all of them.
269 What type of machine uses steam under pressure to sterilize instruments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The autoclave uses steam under pressure to sterilize instruments and other heat-resistant supplies.
270 Which of the following sterilization methods can sterilize water-based liquids?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Steam autoclaves are able to sterilize water-based liquids, while other methods of sterilization can not.
271 Which of the following methods of sterilization can produce corrosion to instruments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The steam autoclave may leave instruments wet after the sterilization cycle and can cause instrument corrosion over time.
272 Sterilization in a chemical liquid sterilization solution requires what length of contact time?