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Practice Test for the DANB Dental Assistant Exam

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General Chairside Assistance 

1 A permanent dentition consists of how many teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
32 teeth make up a permanent dentition.
2 Which teeth are sometimes called the "eye" teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Canine teeth are sometimes called "eye teeth."
3 Which proximal surface of a tooth is closest toward the midline of the body?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mesial is the closest proximal tooth surface toward the midline of the body.
4 A permanent dentition consists of how many premolars?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
8 premolars exist in a permanent dentition
5 When a mouth is divided into fourths, the parts are referred to as:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Quadrants are the four parts when a mouth is divided into four sections: upper right, lower right, upper left and lower left.
6 Using the Universal System of tooth designation, what tooth is #12?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tooth #12 is the maxillary left first premolar.
7 Using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording, which tooth is #25?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Maxillary left second premolar is #25 when using the ISO system of tooth recording
8 What is the structure that connects cementum to the alveolar bone?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periodontal ligament is the connective tissue fibers that encircle the tooth, attaching the cementum to the alveolar bone.
9 A gold crown is marked by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diagonal lines through the crown indicate a restoration made of gold material
10 A dental assistant is preparing to chart a new patient's treatment plan for the doctor. Treatment provided in a previous dental office should be charted in what color?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Black ink is appropriate for charting treatment completed by a previous provider
11 Two red vertical lines drawn between the upper central incisors on a patient chart would indicate:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diastema - a space between the upper central incisors
12 The recommended technique for determining a patient's pulse or respiration rate is to:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Measure for 30 seconds, then multiply by 2, for a rate per minute.
13 In order to determine how much to inflate a blood pressure cuff for an accurate reading, a dental assistant measures the patient's BPM brachial pulse rate and adds ______ to determine the inflation level in mm Hg.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
40 mm Hg should be added to the brachial pulse rate in order to determine the inflation level during a blood pressure reading.
14 An average adult respiration rate is _______________ breaths per minute
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
10-20 is the average adult respiration rate.
15 What is the normal pulse rate in a resting adult?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
60-100 bpm is the normal pulse rate in a resting adult.
16 Standard practice provides, and some state laws require, that a signed privacy policy be kept in a patient's file for a minimum of _______ year(s).
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
General dental assistant guidelines recommend that dental practices keep a signed privacy policy in a patients file for at least 6 years. Some state laws set the minimum at 5 years.
17 Which of the following is not a part of a dental examination?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Health history review is not a part of a dental examination> However it should be considered when assessing the patient's needs.
18 What classification of decay is located on the gingival third on the facial or lingual surfaces of teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Class V decay is smooth surface decay located on the gingival third of affected teeth.
19 While examining a patient, a dentist says he sees Class IV decay. Which of the following teeth would he be looking at?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Incisors (and canines) are the only teeth to be diagnosed with class IV decay.
20 The area also known as the neck of the tooth is more appropriately called the:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
CEJ - cementoenamel junction is the junction of tooth enamel with cementum at the neck or cervix of the tooth.
21 What type of tissue covers alveolar bone, attaching to the teeth at the margin of the gumlines?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Epithelial attachment is the gingiva that covers alveolar bone and attaches to teeth at the margin of the gumlines.
22 What is the tissue that divides the nasal cavity into 2 parts?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Septum is the tissue that divides a nasal cavity through the middle into 2 parts.
23 Which nerve is the primary nerve for the mouth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Trigeminal nerve is the main nerve supply to the mouth. It has both maxillary and mandibular innervation.
24 The pituitary gland is part of what body system?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Endocrine is the system which regulates glands that produce hormones, including the pituitary gland.
25 What position places the chair back until the patient is almost lying down?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Supine is when the patient is lowered until almost lying down
26 What is the best method of identifying working positions by a dental auxiliary?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Clock concept - dividing the treatment area into zones help to identify appropriate working positions.
27 When transferring an instrument to the dentist, the dental assistant should:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A dental assistant should transfer the instrument with the working end facing themselves. This allows the dentist to receive the instrument in a way that allows immediate use without the need for adjustment.
28 When retrieving an instrument from a right-handed operator, the assistant uses the ______________ finger(s) of their left hand.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The last 2 fingers of the hand are used for retrieving instruments from the operator
29 Most of the time, a dental assistant will be working in what "time zone" during a treatment procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
2-4 is the "time zone" that most dental assistants will spend the majority of their time in during procedures.
30 Which chair has a foot bar for support?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Assistant's stools have a foot bar for support.
31 The High Volume Evacuator tips should be placed slightly _______ to the tooth being prepared.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The High Volume Evacuator tips should be placed slightly distal to the tooth being prepared. This frees up operator line of sight and is more efficient at saliva removal.
32 What isolation method is appropriate for one or several teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dental dam is an appropriate isolation method for one or several teeth.
33 An adult male arrives for a scheduled root canal and crown appointment. The dental assistant prepares the instrument tray and equipment when he is seated. What size hole punch is needed for premolar and canines on a dental dam?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
No. 3 hole punches are appropriate for premolar and canines when preparing a dental dam.
34 When removing a dry cotton roll from the mouth:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Moisten a dry cotton roll with water before removal, to prevent cotton from adhering to the dry mucosa in the mouth.
35 Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of N2O2?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Anemia is not a contraindication for the use of N2O2.
36 What part of the gas machine houses the nitrous oxide and oxygen to combine them together for the patient to breathe?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Reservoir bag is the chamber that houses the 2 gases for combination prior to the patient drawing them in for a breath.
37 Nitrous oxide has been used on a patient. For how many minutes afterward should the patient remain on 100% Oxygen?.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
5 minutes is the appropriate length of time for patients to remain on 100% oxygen after having been administered nitrous oxide during a treatment procedure.
38 Which of the following is an approved method by the Center for Disease Control for re-capping a used needle?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Both a and b are appropriate methods for needle re-capping and recommended by the CDC.
39 A long needle, 1 5/8" in length, is used for what type of injections?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mandibular block injections require the use of the "long" needle.
40 What type of injection involves the tissues near the apex of a tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Infiltration is the technique that is used when injecting anesthetic around a tooth to affect the tissues around and near the apex of the tooth.
41 Which of the following is NOT a health concern when it comes to selecting the appropriate form of local anesthetic?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Joint replacement is not a health concern to be considered when selecting the form of local anesthetic to use.
42 What is added to an anesthetic agent to lengthen the effect by decreasing blood flow?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Vasoconstrictors act by constricting the blood vessels thereby decreasing blood flow in the area and lengthening the amount of time that the local anesthetic is active in that location.
43 How long should topical anesthetic be applied to the mucosa prior to an injection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
2-5 minutes is the appropriate length of time that a topical anesthetic should be left on the mucosa before injections for local anesthetic.
44 What may be added to burs in order to shorten preparation time by improving cutting ability?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diamond stones are added to the working surfaces of burs, to improve cutting ability.
45 Which of the following burs would be appropriate for a crown-prep setup tray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A flame-shaped bur would be an appropriate option to place on a crown-prep tray, as it is used to help make adjustments in crown preparations.
46 Low speed handpieces are used for
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Prophy angles are used on low speed handpieces.
47 What type of handpiece operates at speeds of up to 450,000 rpm?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A high-speed handpiece operate at up to speeds of 450,000 rpm.
48 A 16-year-old female has an appointment for an MOD amalgam on #14. What instrument is used to carve amalgam on the occlusal surface of a tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Diskoid/cleoid is used to carve the amalgam into an anatomical appearance on the occlusal surface of teeth.
49 Which of the following is Not a step in sealant placement?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fluoridation is not a step in sealant placement. Sealant placement includes isolation, preparation, conditioning, placement and curing.
50 Which of the following would a bristled brush style prophy angle NOT be appropriate to use on?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dentin is not appropriate for the use of bristle brush prophy angles because they are very abrasive on the soft dentin's surface.
51 What type of stain is on the surface of enamel and may be removed through hand scaling or rubber cup polishing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Extrinsic stains are those on the outer surface of the teeth, which may be polished or scaled off.
52 A dental assistant who is approved to perform expanded functions prepares to perform coronal polishing on a patient after the hygienist has done the scaling. What is done to ensure the prevention of removing small amounts of enamel during coronal polishing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Selective polishing - or only polishing teeth where stain is visible on the functional crown, should be polished.
53 A gingival retraction cord:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A gingival retraction cord extends the impression area slightly below the finished preparation. This widens the sulcus area around the tooth and gently pushes the gums back for a more accurate impression.
54 Which of the following can help prevent hemorrhage during a crown prep procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Saturating the retraction cord in astringent and vasoconstrictor helps to control hemorrhage during a crown prep procedure by constricting blood vessels near the cord.
55 Which of the following would contraindicate a partial denture?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periodontal disease which may threaten remaining teeth would contraindicate a partial denture. This is because the patient may be at risk to lose these teeth and then be in need of another appliance, such as a full denture.
56 Which of the following is the metal extension on a partial denture, which rests on the alveolar ridge and holds the artificial teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A saddle is the metal mesh which extends over the alveolar ridge to support artificial teeth, and covered in acrylic.
57 When taking a shade for a dental appliance, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Teeth should be wet during shade matching - teeth appear a different shade when they are completely dry and this shade would not be appropriate for matching the rest of the teeth as they will always be coated in saliva.
58 What is the amalgam material that helps hold a fixed restoration in place?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Core buildups are made of amalgam and used to add enough structural support to hold a fixed restoration such as a crown.
59 What type of restoration is made of a pontic with wing like frame extensions that fit on adjacent teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Maryland and bonded bridges are the same type of restoration, with a pontic tooth that is supported with wing-like frame extensions that are bonded to adjacent teeth.
60 What term refers to the tooth that support a bridge?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Abutment refers to the supporting teeth.
61 Which of the following is not an example of a cast restoration?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Partial dentures are not examples of cast restorations. A cast restoration is made of porcelain or gold and fits on a prepared tooth.
62 Which of the following is the most widely used periodontal dressing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Noneugenol dressing is the most commonly used periodontal dressing, because it has a smooth surface and rapid set time.
63 Which of the following is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gingivectomy is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue.
64 What instruments converts high frequency sound waves into rapid vibrations for clinical use?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ultrasonic scalers use high speed sound waves that transform into mechanical energy, allowing for the easy removal of calculus on tooth surfaces.
65 Which of the following is not for use when removing calculus deposits below the gumline?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sickle scalers are not appropriate for use below the gumline, they are designed for use on supragingival calculus.
66 A patient arrives for a scaling and root planing procedure on his upper right and lower right quadrants. Which of the following people in the dental office may measure periodontal pockets?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Only a dentist and hygienist may measure periodontal probing depths.
67 A patient with moderate to severe periodontal disease is seen for their periodontal maintenance appointment. Upon examination, the patient exhibits mobility in localized areas. Moderate mobility would be recorded as a ____.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Two on a scale of mobility describes moderate mobility.
68 Periodontal probing depths of 5-7mm are indicative of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Moderate periodontitis will have probing depths that are recorded in the 5-7mm range.
69 The inflammation of gingival tissue is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gingivitis is the inflammation of gingival tissue.
70 To what degree can a mouth be affected with periodontal disease and the disease be considered localized?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
30% or less of a mouth being infected is considered a localized periodontal disease infection.
71 A 14 year old male presents with large MO decay on #19. There is enough decay evident on the bitewing film to show that the patient will be in need of a crown. What is done in an attempt to save a pulp in cases where a root canal may not be necessary?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pulp caps may help save the tooth pulp by placing a covering over the exposed or nearly exposed pulp during a restorative procedure.
72 What is the reason for performing debridement during a root canal procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are reasons for performing debridement of a root canal.
73 The ADA standard of care recommends the use of a dental dam for endodontic treatments. After placing the dam, the next step required is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
After placing the dam, the next step is disinfecting the dam and clamp with an iodine solution (or a sodium hypochlorite solution may be used as well).
74 What solution is used as a sealer in deciduous teeth that undergo a pulpotomy?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Formocresol is used to seal deciduous teeth.
75 What instrument has small barbs along the shaft and is used to remove pulp tissue?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Broaches are useful for removing pulp tissue or fragments of paper points within a root canal.
76 Which of the following is not an appropriate irrigation solution in endodontic procedures?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alcohol is not an appropriate irrigation solution.
77 A patient comes into the office for an endodontic procedure. What is the minimum number of radiographs needed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Four radiographs is the minimum number needed to complete an endodontic procedure.
78 Which of the following is not a root canal sealer that is used to seal unfilled voids?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gutta percha is not a root canal sealer. It is a root canal filling material.
79 What is used to absorb the irrigating solution during an endodontic procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Paper points are used to dry the inside of endodontic canals.
80 During a surgical scrub, hands and forearms should be scrubbed with a surgical scrub brush for how long?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Seven minutes is the appropriate length of time to scrub hands and forearms with a surgical scrub brush.
81 During the extraction of an impacted tooth, what instrument is used to retract tissue away from the bone?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periosteal elevator is the instrument that retracts tissue away from the bone during an extraction.
82 Following an surgical scrub, hands should be kept:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Above waist level is where hands should be kept following a surgical scrub.
83 What flat working instrument used for extractions has large cutting grooves?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bone files are flat working instruments with large cutting blades and are used to smooth the surface of alveolar bone.
84 Which of the following is not a surgical procedure commonly performed in general dental practices?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Extraction of impacted 3rd molar is not a common procedure in general dental practices.
85 Forceps are held using the:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Palm grasp is the correct grasp to use when holding forceps
86 A dry socket occurs when:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A blood clot fails to form properly
87 Which of the following materials is not an absorbable suture material?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Polyester fiber is not an absorbable suture material, it is non-absorbable material.
88 What describes the reshaping of bone between adjacent teeth that have been extracted?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alveoloplasty is when the bone is recontoured and smoothed in the alveolar ridge when adjacent teeth have been extracted.
89 Surgical instruments are all considered to be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Surgical instruments are all considered to be critical and all must be sterilized after use.
90 A tooth that has come out completely due to trauma or injury is said to be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Avulsed is the term used when a tooth completely comes out of the socket in one piece.
91 Which of the following is not a type of stainless steel crown?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Festoon means to be trimmed, but it is not the terminology used to describe a type of stainless steel crown.
92 When the coronal portion of a dental pulp is removed from a primary tooth, the procedure is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pulpotomy removes the infected area of the pulp but leaves healthy pulp tissue within the primary tooth.
93 Preventive orthodontics provided by a pediatric dentist include which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are examples of preventive orthodontics offered in a pediatric dental environment.
94 Which of the following is unique to pediatric dental offices?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Open treatment bays are unique to pediatric dental offices, helping children to feel less shut in than a small operatory.
95 Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until they are able to expectorate. This prevents swallowing of fluoride.
96 The emphasis of pediatric dentistry is on all of the following EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Treatment of developing permanent teeth is not an emphasis of pediatric dentistry.
97 A 5 year old male arrives for an MO composite on #K. What matrix band is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for use on primary molars?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
T-band matrixes are copper t-shaped matrix bands commonly used on primary molars.
98 What type of crown is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for badly decayed teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Stainless steel crowns are used primarily in pediatric dentistry.
99 Which of the following are the most frequently injured primary teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Maxillary central incisors are the most frequently injured primary teeth.
100 What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Class II bites show the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
101 What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Class III bites show the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
102 What are thin wires used around brackets that hold arch wires in place?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wire ligatures are the thin wires that twist around brackets to hold an arch wire in place.
103 What helps to bring about movement between maxillary and mandibular arches?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Elastics help bring about movement between maxillary and mandibular arches.
104 A dentist needs to guide an arch wire into place. What orthodontic instrument should be used?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Weingart utility pliers are used to guide arch wire into place
105 Which of the following directions can orthodontic treatment move a tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are directions that orthodontic therapy can move a tooth.
106 Which of the following is not an ingredient in amalgam fillings?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Steel is not an ingredient in amalgam fillings.
107 Which of the following is not a common type of cavity liner?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Potassium fluoride is not a common type of cavity liner
108 A 35 year old female is having an incisal chip on #25 repaired. What is applied to the surface of a tooth to prepare for the use of bonding material?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Etch is applied to the tooth in order to prepare it for retention and bonding of material.
109 What type of cement is used for permanently cementing a cast to a tooth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Luting agent is- a permanent cement which is used in a very thin coat to permanently cement casting to a tooth.
110 Bonding is greatly improved when etch is used on the surface of dentin to remove:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The smear layer is a thin layer of debris that remains after a tooth is prepared for treatment.
111 What cement material is used for most temporary restorations?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
IRM, or intermediate restorative material, is the most common cement used for temporary restorations.
112 Which cement releases fluoride at a slow rate, inhibiting decay?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Glass ionomer cements release a slow flow of fluoride into the tooth, reducing risk of recurrent decay.
113 Which of the following is the only material listed that is appropriate to mix on a paper mixing pad?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Calcium hydroxide is appropriate for mixing on a paper pad. Amalgam must be mixed in a machine while the other 2 materials listed must be mixed on a glass slab.
114 A ______ and ______ are needed when creating a proper contour of a new restoration.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Matrix, wedge - Both necessary in order to properly create an anatomical contour for new restorations
115 When preparing a matrix band, which edge has a shorter circumference?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gingival edges are shorter than the occlusal edges, because the neck of the tooth is narrower than the occlusal crown portion.
116 Which of the following is NOT true in regards to home whitening treatments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Whiteners will remove some surface stains from restorative materials but will not remove stains or color from in a restorative material. Whiteners will only affect the tooth structure, not restorative materials.
117 Wedges are not needed for Class ____ matrix systems.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wedges are only used for class II, III and IV matrix systems.
118 What thin, tooth-colored restorative material is bonded directly to the tooth in order to improve the appearance?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Veneer is the tooth colored material that is bonded to a tooth in order to improve the overall appearance.
119 Which of the following is used for anterior composite fillings?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Clear plastic matrix are used for composite fillings on anterior teeth.
120 What is used along with bonding material when a tooth is badly broken down?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A retentive pin helps along with bonding material to restore teeth that are badly broken down.
121 Which of the following would NOT be needed for a varnish application set-up?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Curing lights are not needed for the application of a varnish.
122 Etching requires approximately how long in order to thoroughly etch the tooth structure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
15-30 seconds is the typical time required by etch manufacturers for the material to thoroughly etch the tooth surface.
123 Which of the following is not a type of impression?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Temporary is not a type of impression. There are only 3 types of impressions and those are preliminary, final and occlusal registration
124 What type of material is an irreversible hydrocolloid that is the material of choice for taking a preliminary impression?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alginate is a gelatinous material that is ideal for preliminary impressions.
125 What material is used to create diagnostic casts when strength and accuracy of the model are not critical?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Model plaster - this is used because it is easy to trim and handle
126 Which of the following is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Exposure to light is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products. However, the others listed do affect it.
127 What is predominately used to show the occlusion relationship between arches?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wax bite registration is a soft, pliable material that allows the occlusion surfaces of teeth to easily be recorded.
128 A mandibular alginate impression usually requires how many scoops of alginate powder?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Two scoops of alginate powder are usually needed for a mandibular impression.
129 When taking a final impression of a tooth, the _________ form of viscosity is chosen for application directly into the sulcus of the prepared tooth.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Light body viscosity is used for application directly into the sulcus of the prepared tooth. This allows it to flow easily into the margins and details of the prepared area.
130 When taking a final impression, which of the following is not necessary for the set-up tray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Alginate impressions are not used for taking final impression
131 Mineralized bacteria on the tooth surface is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Calculus is mineralized bacterial plaque
132 De-minerlization of the tooth is caused by the loss of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Calcium and phosphate loss results in tooth demineralization
133 What is made up of glycoproteins in saliva and forms on the surfaces of teeth within minutes?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pellicle is the thin layer made up of glycoproteins from saliva which deposit themselves on the surfaces of teeth in a rapid manner.
134 When gingival infection extends to the alveolar bone, it is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periodontitis is a more severe form of gingivitis, which affects the alveolar, or supporting bone structure around the tooth.
135 Which of the following is a risk factor for developing periodontitis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are risk factors for developing periodontitis.
136 Soft toothbrush bristles are preferred for brushing. What is the reason?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Are less likely to cause damage to the gums and tooth structure. Bristles that are too hard can cause gum recession and toothbrush abrasion, so using a soft bristled brush helps prevent these.
137 What educational aid temporarily colors plaque for more effective removal?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Disclosing agents, usually in a tablet or liquid form, are used to color bacterial plaque and aid in proper brushing techniques that show the patient how to remove plaque more effectively.
138 What is the most commonly recommended toothbrushing method that helps target plaque below the gumline?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bass method is the most recommended method of brushing which targets plaque at and below the gingival margin.
139 Which type of floss is most effective in plaque removal?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
None of the above. While there are various types of floss, research fails to show that one type is more effective at plaque removal than any of the others.
140 When brushing, a toothbrush should be placed at what angulation toward the gumlines?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
45 degrees angulation is the preferred method of brushing.
141 __________ pressure should be used when brushing.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Light pressure should be used during brushing in order to reduce gum recession and tooth abrasion.
142 Fluoride may sometimes be found in:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above. Depending on location, natural fluoride may appear in the water and soil of certain areas. Food that is grown in these areas will also contain fluoride, or it may be found in animal meat.
143 Which of the following would not contain a topical fluoride?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Water is not a topical source of fluoride. It is a systemic source.
144 When a tooth decalcifies and then remineralization occurs, which of the following is NOT accurate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
That the enamel will be weaker than surrounding tooth enamel is not accurate. The enamel may actually be harder than other areas once it is re-mineralized.
145 Young children exposed to long-term overuse of fluoride may develop what on developing permanent teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fluorosis is the long-term exposure to overuse of fluoride, which causes white spots on developing teeth.
146 Optimum concentrations of fluoride in municipal water systems should be in what range?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
7 to 1.2 ppm is the recommended concentration of fluoride in municipal water supplies.
147 Which of the following are NOT at a high-risk to develop caries?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Children ages 6-16 are not necessarily at an increased risk to develop caries compared to other groups.
148 What is used by the body as the chief source of energy?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Each gram of carbohydrate supplies 4 calories and is the body's main source of energy.
149 What vitamin assists the body's ability to absorb calcium?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium, strengthening bones and teeth.
150 Which of the following is not a vital sign?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Weight is not considered a vital sign.
151 What common medical emergency occurs when blood flow to the brain slows and causes the patient to lose consciousness?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Syncope, otherwise known as fainting, is one of if not perhaps the most common medical emergency in a dental office, resulting from slowed blood flow to the brain.
152 Postural hypotension may occur when:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All are risk factors for postural hypotension - a lack of blood flow to the brain that often occurs when the patient sits up quickly.
153 When does hyperventilation occur?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When a patient takes in too much oxygen due to frequent breaths caused by anxiety or stress.
154 What is a neurologic disorder that causes seizures, and is normally controlled with medication?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Epilepsy is the medical condition that consists of neurologic disorders which cause recurrent seizures.
155 Which of the following is NOT correct?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hyperglycemia is an elevated level of blood glucose levels.
156 What heart condition is painful but does not usually cause death?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Angina pectoris is a painful occurrence when the heart is deprived of oxygen. It usually does not result in death, but it is a sign that the person may have other cardiovascular health problems.
157 What is anaphylaxis?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Swelling and blockage of air passages, anaphylaxis is a common result of severe allergic reactions.
158 A localized allergic response may include all of the following except:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Drop in blood pressure is not a side effect of a localized allergic response.
159 Which of the following supplies contain an allergen that might cause an allergic reaction in some patients?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Rubber dams contain latex and may trigger an allergic reaction in some patients
160 Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a medical emergency?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Patient nervousness is not a warning sign of a medical emergency. If a patient becomes so nervous that they begin experiencing warning signs as a result, then there should be an elevated awareness of emergency prevention.
161 Who is in charge of the emergency response protocol in a dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The dentist is in charge of the emergency response protocol in a dental office.
162 Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a medical emergency?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Uneven respiration is not a symptom of a medical emergency, it is a sign. Symptoms include something the patient is experiencing which they must tell you about and cannot be observed.
163 A patient begins to experience hives and difficulty breathing. Which of the following emergency drugs would be appropriate for use in an allergic reaction?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Epinephrine is an emergency drug that should be kept on hand in the case of an allergic reaction.
164 Which of the following is an example of an appropriate item to keep in an emergency drug kit for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above are examples of glucose products that are appropriate to use in the case of an emergency with a hypoglycemic patient.
165 During a bonding procedure for teeth #8 and 9, a patient begins experiencing trouble breathing. What position should the patient be put in?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Be placed on 100% oxygen, and then have other vital signs monitored.
166 What color are oxygen tanks in the dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Oxygen tanks are universally green in color, to prevent a mix-up of other gases.
167 Which of the following is not part of the standard of care for dental personnel emergency training?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Administration of intravascular drugs is not part of the standard of care for dental personnel emergency training.
168 Which of the following is NOT an example of a staff role during a medical emergency?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Call and notify patient's next of kin is not an example of a staff role during a medical emergency. Initial life support roles such as calling 911, retrieving the drug kit and assisting with CPR are specific staff roles that should be designated by the dentist should a medical emergency occur in the office.
169 A patient faints in the dental chair. They should be placed:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
If a patient faints, the patient should be placedin a reclined position with the head slightly lower than the feet. This encourages blood flow to the brain in an attempt to revive the patient.
170 A patient begins to experience a seizure while in the dental chair. Which of the following is NOT appropriate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Placing a prop or suction in the patient's mouth to prevent them from biting their tongue is not appropriate. Nothing should be placed inside of a person's mouth when they are experiencing a seizure.
171 Which of the following is NOT appropriate when responding to a patient experiencing chest pain?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Allow the patient to sit until pain subsides, then allow a family member to escort them home is not appropriate when responding to a patient experiencing chest pain.
172 What color are nitrous oxide tanks?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Nitrous oxide tanks are universally colored blue to prevent a mix-up of other gases.
173 _______ refers to what you should do in a given situation.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ethics refers to what you should do in a given situation. Most boards have set forth a minimum standard for license holders. Ethics are voluntarily set standards.
174 _______ refers to what you must do in a given situation.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Law refers to what you must do in a given situation. A behavior may be unethical and still be legal.
175 What type of supervision is used when the dentist is physically present in a dental office and delegates a procedure to the assistant to be completed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Direct supervision is when the auxiliary performs a procedure that is delegated by the dentist, and the dentist is still physically present inside of the building.
176 Which of the following is not a concept of risk management to prevent malpractice suits?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Following OSHA regulations is not a step of risk management in regard to malpractice suits. OSHA protects employees in the workplace.
177 Implied consent differs from written consent. Written consent _______.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Written consent documents the patient's consent and understanding of the treatment procedure.
178 Which of the following is NOT included in a patient's chart?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Financial information is not part of a patient's dental chart.
179 A dental assistant marks the wrong amount of Lidocaine used in a patient's chart. Which of the following is an appropriate method of correcting a patient's record?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Drawing a line through the text is the only appropriate method of correcting a patient's record.
180 Who owns a patient's records and radiographs?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The dentist is the owner of dental records and radiographs. Patient's may be able to request copies, but they do not technically own them.
181 Approximately 65% of child abuse cases involve:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The head and neck are involved in approximately 65% of all child abuse cases. This is why dental professionals should have an awareness and understanding of recognizing signs of abuse.
182 A patient that has not been seen in the office for at least 5 years is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An inactive patient is a patient that has not been into the office for at least 4 or 5 years, even if they have a chart on file.
183 When scheduling appointments inside of a practice management program, most time units are made up of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
10-15 minutes is the average unit of time that is used when blocking out appointments in a computerized schedule.
184 What act specifies the regulations that ensure privacy related to a patient's healthcare information?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
HIPAA is the act that protects a patient's privacy regarding their healthcare information.
185 HIPAA is an acronym for:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act uses the acronym HIPAA
186 Failing to maintain a recall system will result in:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Unscheduled hygiene patients will be a result of an unmaintained recall system.
187 Who in the dental office is ultimately responsible for reporting child abuse cases?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All staff members are responsible for reporting suspected child abuse victims. The responsibility does not fall on the discretion of a single individual.
188 What organization is responsible for regulating dentistry and those that practice it within each state?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The state dental board is responsible for regulating dental providers practicing within their state boundaries.

Infection Control 

189 Which of the following is NOT a mode of disease transmission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sexually transmitted is not a mode of disease transmission. It is a type of transmitted disease.
190 Which Hepatitis virus should healthcare personnel be immunized against?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hep B immunization is an effective vaccine that healthcare workers should be given to prevent the risk of occupational exposure.
191 Which of the following diseases can be spread through contaminated water supplies?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Legionnaire's Disease can be spread through aerosols as well as aspirating contaminated water.
192 A patient experiences an infection where symptoms appear quickly and are severe. What type of infection is this?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Acute infections are often very quick to appear and have severe symptoms.
193 A patient presents with symptoms of an oral yeast infection. What condition could have caused this infection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Oral candidasis is a yeast infection of the mouth, sometimes called "thrush."
194 What is a microorganism called that is capable of causing diseases?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pathogens are organisms that are capable of causing disease conditions.
195 Which disease is an example of one caused by a spore?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tetanus, also called "lock jaw" is a disease that is caused by spore bacteria.
196 Which of the following does not determine how pathogenic an organism is?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The type of bacteria does not determine how pathogenic an organism is. Virulence, Concentration, Host resistance and Portal of Entry are some of the determining influences.
197 A patient is experiencing increased stress due to a recent illness that has impacted her normal routine. What type of infection could have entered the body and then lie dormant until triggered by conditions such as stress?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Latent infections lie dormant in the body until conditions like fever or illness cause the virus to become active.
198 Which of the following is not a portal of entry for splash or splatter disease transmission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Intact skin is a natural protective barrier and is not a portal of entry for splash or splatter disease transmission.
199 A patient has a bloodborne disease. Which of the following is not a disease that the dental professional is concerned about contracting through contact with blood?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tuberculosis is not a bloodborne disease it is an airborne bacterial disease.
200 Which hepatitis virus is not transmitted by bloodborne bacteria?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hepatitis A is the fecal-oral transmittable form of heptatitis, and is the least serious of these viruses.
201 A dentist is treating a patient with a porcelain crown on #4. Which of the following dental equipment does not create an aerosol exposure to the dentist during use?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dental suctions do not create aerosol exposures during use.
202 Which of the following modes of disease transmission is also known as cross-contamination?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Indirect transmission is also known as cross-contamination. It happens by the indirect transferring of a pathogen by touching contaminated surfaces and then another area like the eyes or mouth.
203 Which of the following conditions is the least threatening to dental personnel when it concerns the risk of transmission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the other conditions are highly contagious, and while HIV contamination should be prevented, it is not as big of a concern in regards to disease transmission in a dental office setting.
204 A patient states that they have contracted Herpes, and asks if there are signs of the virus in the mouth. After questioning the patient it is determined that the virus strain was contracted through sexual activity. Which herpes virus is sexually transmitted?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Herpes Simplex 2 is transmitted through sexual contact.
205 The OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard guides employees to protect themselves from all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tuberculosis is not a bloodborne disease, but all of the other viruses listed are conditions that the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard helps employees protect themselves against.
206 Dental assistants are to treat each patient as if they were infected with a bloodborne illness. This precautionary method is called
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Universal precautions are the standard in which all patients are treated as if they are infected with a bloodborne disease.
207 CDC standard precautions include care taken around all of the following EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Intact skin is not considered a potentially infections mechanism of disease transmission.
208 Which of the following is not a category of occupational exposure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Indirect is not a category of occupational exposure. Direct, percutaneous and permucosal are all categories of occupational exposure.
209 A dental assistant receives a needlestick when attempting to re-cap a used needle during a dental procedure. Needlesticks or cuts in the skin are what type of occupational exposure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Percutaneous exposures are when the skin has been perforated and exposed to blood or possible infectious material.
210 An assistant is re-capping a used needle after a treatment procedure. What is the appropriate method for the assistant to use when re-capping?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Using a single handed re-capping technique will prevent accidental needlestick with a used needle.
211 Employee medical records, including proof of Hep B vaccination, should be kept by the employer for how long?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Duration of employment, plus 30 years, is the recommended length of storing confidential medical records on employees. These must be stored in a secure, locked location.
212 An assistant has seated a patient, assisted with the procedure, and just excused the patient following the treatment. When should handwashing occur?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hands must be washed before gloving up, after gloving up, and any other time that a contaminated object may have accidentally have been touched.
213 All of the following help to minimize cross-contamination EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bar soap does not help to minimize cross-contamination. It may actually be a surface that transmits bacteria or other contaminants.
214 When conducting an inventory of PPE equipment, a dentist should make sure all of the following items are available to staff EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All other items listed are considered PPE.
215 Higher levels of PPE should be used for which of the following?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Room clean-up will expose the employee to more contaminants than the other examples, therefore higher levels of PPE, such as gloves, should be worn.
216 PPE requirements state that:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fluid-resistant material must be used for lab coats. This can include disposable jackets or cotton or cotton/poly blend material.
217 Bloodeborne pathogen standards state that protective clothing:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
May not be taken home to be laundered. Laundering PPE that has been contaminated is the responsibility of the employer.
218 A hygienist is changing her surgical mask after seeing a patient for a deep cleaning. When should a surgical mask be changed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Surgical masks must be changed between patients.
219 When selecting PPE for an assisting procedure, which of the following is NOT an option for protective eyewear?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Prescription eyewear is not an acceptable means of personal protective equipment. Glasses must have solid side shields.
220 What can reduce mask filtration?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Moisture reduces the filtration abilities of masks. Contact with the mouth or splatter reduces filtration.
221 What kind of gloves are sterile?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Surgical gloves are sterile and should be worn for invasive procedures.
222 In which of the following situations should utility gloves be worn?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Utility gloves should be worn during instrument sterilization.
223 A patient presents himself with a latex allergy. Which of the following type of gloves would be appropriate for the assistant to use?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Nitrile gloves would be an appropriate latex-free glove option for the patient with a latex allergy.
224 Items like gloves, masks, eyewear and uniforms are considered:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) are things like masks, gloves and eyewear that protect employees from possible exposure to pathogens in the office setting.
225 An assistant discards of a certain piece of waste in its own container. What type of waste is this?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Biohazardous waste is harmful to people and the environment, and must be disposed of properly in appropriate containers.
226 A dentist chooses sterile gloves for a procedure. Which of the following procedures is the dentist most likely about to perform?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Implant placements are surgical, invasive procedures and sterile gloves should be worn instead of non-sterile examination gloves.
227 Which agency's role is to issue standards that protect the health of employees?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
OSHA is a regulatory agency and their goal is to keep safety standards in place that protect employees from possible accident or injury.
228 What law is the most important when it comes to protecting employees against exposure to disease in the dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is established by OSHA to protect employees from pathogens that are bloodborne.
229 A recall patient has cold sores on his lip that have begun to scab over. Cold sores are a type of what kind of infection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Latent infections are those that come and go, such as viral infections like the herpes simplex virus, which causes cold sores.
230 Splatter from the ultrasonic scaler makes contact with the hygienist's eye because she was using inappropriate PPE. What type of exposure is this?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Permucosal exposures are those that come into contact with the mucous membranes like the eyes.
231 A health care professional visits their doctor for vaccination due to occupational exposure risks. What type of immunity is achieved when someone is vaccinated and their body creates the antibodies against a disease?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Active artificial immunity is when the body does not have antibodies and then develops an artificial immunity to it after having been administered a vaccine.
232 An assistant is cleaning up an operatory following a crown procedure. There are used mixing pads on the tray. What type of waste is this?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Routine waste like mixing pads, paper towels or headrest covers are examples of general waste that may discarded with regular waste like paper or other trash.
233 The dentist extracts a patient's 2nd bicuspids for their orthodontic treatment. Extracted teeth are a type of what kind of waste?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pathologic waste is a type of infectious waste and should be disposed of appropriately in accordance to state and local laws.
234 The office staff are unloading the most recent supply of delivery boxes. As packages are opened, the assistant gathers specific sheets to include in an office binder. What is the information sheet called that contains health and safety information about chemicals used in the dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
MSDS stands for Material Safety Data Sheets and they should be kept on file for every chemical that is in the office.
235 A patient breaks out into a rash after coming into contact with the dentist's latex glove. What is this reaction called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Contact dermatitis is when the skin breaks out after coming into contact with something that is an irritant or allergy to the person.
236 An assistant is dressing in the morning to prepare for work. Which of the following is appropriate to wear in the dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Simple wedding bands are ok to wear in the dental office. Large jewelry and artificial nails, however, can harbor bacteria, which can contribute to direct or cross-contamination of the individual or others they interact with.
237 An assistant is helping a dentist perform an extraction. The assistant needs to touch something not associated with the treatment. What gloves should be worn?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Overgloves are to be worn over treatment gloves to prevent cross-contamination to other areas inside of the operatory when they are needed for use.
238 An assistant is preparing a treatment room for the next procedure. During this preparation, she sets out PPE for herself and the doctor. Does the same PPE need to be worn for all patient procedures?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
No, it depends on what risk of exposure the procedure is. A filling does not require the use of surgical gloves, but an implant procedure would.
239 One of the staff members in the office refuses to receive the Hepatitis B vaccine. This employee must:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Employees that refuse to receive Hep B vaccination must sign a waiver to be kept on file with their employer.
240 A dentist hires a new assistant to replace the one that just moved to another state. What must he provide free of charge to his employees?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The Hep B vaccine must be provided free of charge by an employer to each employee in the office if they are reasonably likely to be exposed to blood or infectious disease during the course of their work. This is a requirement of OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard.
241 Which of the following is capable of causing disease?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pathogens are disease-causing organisms. The other answers are examples of infections, viruses or infection causing organisms, but they do not cause disease.
242 A patient has a poor immune system and becomes infected with a disease-causing pathogen. This patient may develop a(n):
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Opportunistic infections occur in instances where someone with a depressed immune system come into contact with pathogenic bacteria and are not able to suppress an infection.
243 An assistant is cleaning up the operatory following a crown seat procedure without wearing gloves. If transmission of a pathogen occurs, what type of transmission would it be?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Indirect transmission is when a person comes into contact with pathogenic microorganisms by handing contaminated surfaces or equipment, which can then be spread to themselves via contact with the face, or to other people.
244 Biohazardous waste must be discarded by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All biohazardous waste must be placed into specially marked separate bags with the biohazardous waste symbol, then disposed of appropriately based on local laws and regulations.
245 Dental employees are at a biggest risk to pathogen exposure by what type of transmission?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Direct contact with blood or saliva from a patient is the biggest concern to dental employees when it comes to disease transmission
246 Which of the following can reduce a patient's ability to transmit disease during a dental procedure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pre-rinsing with an antimicrobial mouthwash can help to reduce the number of bacteria in a patient's mouth, limiting exposure to pathogens from splatter or direct contact.
247 A patient contracts a disease but then recovers. Their body has formed what type of immunity?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Naturally acquired immunities are those that the body develops when it has been exposed and develops a disease, heals itself, and then develops a natural immunity to the disease so that it does not become infected again.
248 In order to follow OSHA requirements appropriately, a dental assistant must have routine training in all of the following EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
HIPAA is not part of OSHA regulatory laws to protect the health and safety of employees in the dental office.
249 When cleaning off a treatment tray, the dental assistant must dispose of waste appropriately. Which of the following is NOT an example of biohazardous waste?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Exam gloves are not usually saturated in blood, nor do they cause an increased risk of exposure as sharps or blood saturated items would.
250 What is the term that is used to describe how strong a disease-causing organism is?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Virulent or virulence is how strong and capable a pathogenic microorganism is when it comes to causing disease.
251 An infectious disease causes:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Tissue damage is caused by infectious disease due to damage by the pathogenic microorganisms.
252 Which of the following is NOT important in regards to an ideal sterilization area?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
While enough room for appropriate equipment and supplies is needed, the size of sterilization areas is not important. That is important is that it is used only for the purpose of instrument processing and is a separate area from the rest of the office.
253 When removing used equipment and instruments from a treatment tray, what type of gloves should the dental assistant select to wear?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Utility gloves are heavy duty and help protect staff from harmful, sharp instruments on a treatment tray.
254 Which of the following equipment is NOT necessary for a dental assistant to wear when transporting used instruments from the treatment area to the sterilization area?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Masks are a type of PPE but they are not necessary when transporting used equipment from a treatment room to the sterilization area.
255 The schedule is backed up and the dental assistant is not able to clean the used instruments immediately. The instruments should be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The instruments should be placed in a holding solution. This prevents residue from hardening up on instruments or the risk of them coming into contact with something or someone else.
256 When unloading the autoclave, the assistant is not sure whether or not it has been run. What is used on an instrument package to show if the enclosed instruments have been sterilized or not?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Chemical indicators on the instrument package show when the enclosed instruments have been properly sterilized. These may be on the package already, or a separate strip placed on the package.
257 When loading or unloading the sterilizer, which of the following is NOT something that needs to be considered?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All instrument packages should be placed in single layers, so that the steam or chemical solution can reach them adequately.
258 Quality assurance in regards to sterilization includes which of the following:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Training, Record-keeping and Maintenance are all parts that should be considered in a quality assurance program in regards to instrument sterilization.
259 An assistant is putting on PPE to perform sterilization procedures. When should a mask be used as part of this routine?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When hand scrubbing instruments, it may be possible to be exposed to splatter or water droplets and it is necessary to wear a mask as part of the PPE.
260 A staff member is assembling treatment trays for the day. What gloves are appropriate for this purpose?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Exam gloves are appropriate when assembling treatment trays with sterilized instrument packets.
261 An assistant keeps protective eyewear in their lab coat pocket throughout the workday. At what times should they be worn?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
At any time when handling used instruments. This includes transfer of the used treatment tray to the sterilization area up to the loading of the autoclave.
262 What is the area where soiled instruments are held?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The sterilization area has a contaminated area that includes counter space, sinks, holding solution and ultrasonic cleaner where the contaminated instruments are processed prior to sterilization. Nothing but soiled instruments should be placed in this area.
263 Which of the following is NOT an example of precleaning:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Holding solution is not an example of precleaning. Holding solution should only be used when there is not enough time to immediately clean and process instruments.
264 When selecting precleaning methods for a new office sterilization area, which of the following methods is the least desirable for cleaning instruments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Hand scrubbing is the least desirable method of cleaning instruments. Hand scrubbing puts people at an increased risk for contamination due to direct contact with the instruments.
265 What method of precleaning instruments uses cavitation, or the bursting of bubbles, to remove debris from soiled instruments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ultrasonic machines produce sound waves that cause cavitation, resulting in the mechanical removal of debris from instruments.
266 An assistant must package all instruments prior to sterilization in order to reduce the risk of contamination when they are removed. Which of the following is NOT appropriate in regards to instrument packaging?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The reuse of standard sterilization wraps is not approved by the FDA. Wraps should only be used once and then discarded.
267 One of the team members is creating a check-off list for office duties that include preparation of the sterilization area on a routine basis. At least how often should the ultrasonic cleaner be changed out?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The ultrasonic cleaner should be changed out at least once a day. Ultrasonic cleaning solution can become dirty very quickly, and may even need to be changed out up to twice a day.
268 Which of the following destroys all microbial forms:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sterilization destroys all microbial forms. The other methods may destroy some types of bacteria, but they do not destroy all of them.
269 What type of machine uses steam under pressure to sterilize instruments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The autoclave uses steam under pressure to sterilize instruments and other heat-resistant supplies.
270 Which of the following sterilization methods can sterilize water-based liquids?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Steam autoclaves are able to sterilize water-based liquids, while other methods of sterilization can not.
271 Which of the following methods of sterilization can produce corrosion to instruments?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The steam autoclave may leave instruments wet after the sterilization cycle and can cause instrument corrosion over time.
272 Sterilization in a chemical liquid sterilization solution requires what length of contact time?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ten hours are needed for complete sterilization to take place in a chemical liquid sterilization solution. Less than ten hours produces only disinfection.
273 Biologic monitoring confirms that ______ have been killed:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
By killing spores in a sterilization cycle, the equipment is successful. Not killing spores means failure of sterilization.
274 An assistant places a monitoring device on the outside of an instrument package. This device changes color once a certain temperature has been reached. What is this device called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Process indicators change color once they have been exposed to a certain temperature, making it easy to determine which packages have been processed and which have not.
275 An assistant ensures that monitoring of the sterilization machines is done to meet CDC and ADA recommendations. How often should this monitoring be performed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Th monitoring of sterilization machines should be performed at least once per week. Some states require testing more or less frequently.
276 A new staff member places sterilization packs snuggly into the autoclave. If packages in the sterilizer are too close together, the primary concern is that it may:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When the packages are tightly against each other it prevents instrument surfaces from being reached by the sterilization agent.
277 The dentist is purchasing a new piece of equipment for quick sterilization in her busy office. What is the quickest method of instrument sterilization?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Rapid heat transfer is a very quick method of sterilization that may be used only on instruments that are unwrapped.
278 OSHA recommends what methods to deal with surface contamination in the treatment room?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Both barriers and disinfecting surfaces between patients may be used together to handle surface contamination. Either one is appropriate, but they may be used conjointly based on the needs of the treatment area.
279 An assistant is setting up an operatory for the next appointment. Which of the following is an example of a surface barrier that might be used?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Rolls or wide sticky tape are often used for buttons or handles. Plastic bags for surface barriers come in various sizes to fit things like air/water syringes. Aluminum foil may be used in some instances as it is easy to shape.
280 An assistant is cleaning and disinfecting a treatment room. What PPE does the assistant need to wear?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Eyewear, mask and utility gloves should all be part of PPE used when cleaning and disinfecting a treatment room, to prevent exposure to chemicals or other splatter.
281 All contaminated surfaces must be ___________ before they can be ____________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All contaminated surfaces must be precleaned before they can be disinfected. This helps to remove initial bioburdens and bacteria in the working area.
282 What is the method that kills disease-causing organisms that remain on surfaces after they are precleaned?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Disinfection is the method of cleaning work area from disease causing organisms after the work area has already been precleaned.
283 Spores are killed in the process called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sterilization kills like forms including spores. Disinfection and precleaning do not destroy these organisms.
284 What agency regulates disinfectants and chemical sterilants?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
EPA, the Environmental Protection Agency, regulates disinfectants and chemical cleaners used in dentistry.
285 What are EPA approved cleaners that serve as a mid-level hospital disinfected that kills the Tuberculosis virus?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Iodophors are a broad-spectrum tuberculocidal cleaner that disinfects surface areas.
286 What road-spectrum mid-level hospital disinfectant may be appropriate for use on disinfecting dental impressions?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Syntehtic Phenol Compounds may be appropriate to use for disinfecting dental impressions, but the impression material should be checked first for compatibility.
287 An assistant is cleaning up an operatory after an extraction that has resulted in large amounts of blood droplet splatter. Which of the following surface disinfectants are not effective against areas contaminated with blood or saliva?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Neither alcohol nor bleach (sodium hypochlorite and Chlorox) are appropriate surface decontaminants per the CDC and ADA.
288 Gletaraldehyde is a _____-level disinfectant
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
High-level disinfectant. It can also be used as a sterilant if immersion time is long enough.
289 When deciding what instruments need to be sterilized vs. disinfected, the staff member knows that the instruments that penetrate body tissues must be sterilized. What is this type of instrument called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Critical instruments penetrate body tissues and bone structures, and should be heat sterilized.
290 During tray clean up, certain instruments have only touched mucous membranes and have a lower risk of disease transmission. What type of instruments are these?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Semicritical instruments have a low risk of disease transmission, but they do come into contact with mucous membranes.
291 How should semicritical instruments be sterilized?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Semicritical instruments should be heat sterilized. The majority of this type of instruments are heat resistant and should be placed in the autoclave with other instruments.
292 A procedure has involved the use of the x-ray machine, an oral mirror, tongue depressor and dental dam. An assistant is preparing to clean up the work area. Which of the following would be a noncritical dental instrument?:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The x-ray tube head only comes into contact with skin, and is considered a noncritical dental instrument in regards to sterilization and disinfection.
293 An assistant desires to help reduce the spread of disease causing organisms during the treatment of the next patient. Which of the following can help achieve this goal?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Using a rubber dam can help reduce splatter and aerosols during dental procedures, decreasing exposure to microorganisms.
294 When reducing contamination of water lines, a dental assistant may choose to use all of the following methods EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Using a city water supply can allow foreign water-borne bacteria into the water lines, which may then infect the patient and/or staff.
295 An assistant is using disinfectant on radiographs and radiography equipment. What type of disinfectant is appropriate?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Low or mid-level disinfectants are appropriate for use in radiography equipment like tubeheads and processing workspaces.
296 When setting up the operatory for a bridge prep, surface barriers such as bags, taps or covers are not necessary for use on:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Flat, smooth surfaces such as countertops do not require surface barriers because they are easily cleaned and disinfected.
297 Which of the following is the most difficult prosthodontic item to disinfect without causing damage to it?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Casts are the most difficult prosthodontic item to disinfect without harming the structure of it. It is important to properly disinfect the dental impression so that cross-contamination does not cause the cast to become contaminated as well.
298 An employee has been exposed to a hazardous chemical in the office. What hazard communication program maintains the documentation of this event?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A written program is a necessary part of hazard communications programs to maintain documentation regarding employees that have been exposed to hazardous chemicals or substances.
299 The office manager purchases some household bleach that was on sale at the store to be used while cleaning the office. It will not be used for anything other than cleaning the restroom. Which of the following should be done?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Chemical inventories are made up of complete lists and documentation of each chemical that is used in the dental office, and should be updated any time a new product is brought in even if it is a household cleaner.
300 A dental office must maintain the information sheets provided by chemical manufacturers that describe the properties of their product. What are these sheets called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Material safety data sheets - MSDS for short- are informational sheets that are published by chemical manufacturers and should be kept on file in a common binder with other MSDS sheets.
301 When treating a patient, a dental assistant acquires a needlestick from the used syringe on the countertop. What is the first thing she should do?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Stop operations immediately and excuse yourself from the treatment procedure. At that point you should begin appropriate first-aid steps.
302 An assistant that acquires a needlestick during a treatment procedure immediately stops operations and excuses themselves from the treatment room. What is the next appropriate first-aid step?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The assistant should encourage the skin to bleed by gently squeezing any broken areas. This encourages the body to naturally flush out any microorganisms that may have been transferred during the needlestick.
303 Legionnaire disease may be spread by legionella bacteria in a dental water line, and can cause what type of infection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pneumonia can be caused by legionella bacteria and is known as Legionnaire's disease. Patients can contract the bacteria by inhaling water droplets that are contaminated.
304 Chronic chemical toxicity can cause:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above may be caused by frequent exposure to hazardous chemicals over a long period of time, resulting in chronic chemical toxicity.
305 Emergency kits in the dental office should be inspected how often?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Because emergency kits in the dental office include many medications such as epinephrine, the kits should be inspected monthly.
306 What organization identifies classifications of dental touch surfaces like switches, controls and handles?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
OSAP, the Organization for Safety and Asepsis Procedures, classifies areas of touch surfaces in the clinical setting.
307 A dentist removes amalgam from a patient's tooth during a procedure. How should this amalgam be disposed of?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Amalgam should be disposed of in a designated, sealed container. Removed amalgam fillings contain mercury, which can be harmful to the environment. They must be kept separate from other waste and disposed of in accordance with state regulations.
308 The office manager is putting together documentation for the Hazard Communication Standard. All of the following documents should be included EXCEPT:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Inventory of surgical instruments is not a part of a Hazard Communication Standard.
309 An assistant receives a needlestick after it is used on an HIV+ patient. The assistant undergoes necessary first-aid and follow up protocols regarding contaminated needlesticks. A follow up testing is recommended again how long after the initial exposure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Six months after the initial exposure, it is recommended that HIV testing be conducted, even if previous tests showed negative and the employee underwent antiviral treatment.
310 Biohazardous waste containers must be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Labeled with the biohazard symbol. While many containers are red, the biohazard symbol is what is mandated to be printed on the side of the container in order to identify it as biohazardous waste.
311 An assistant transfers a chemical from its properly labeled container into a smaller container for a single patient procedure. Which of the following is NOT true?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A new label should be placed on the 2nd container regardless of when the chemical will be used up. New labels are only needed on 2nd containers if the product will not be used up in the same 8-hour work day.
312 What is the layer of microbes inside the walls of dental unit water lines called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Biofilm is a layer of buildup or microbes inside of the walls in dental water lines.
313 A dental assistant prepares to flush the dental water lines. How often is this to be performed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
At the beginning and end of each day, dental water lines should be flushed to discourage biofilm from building up inside of the tubing walls.
314 Following a full mouth debridement, the hygienist needs to clean out the trap from the vacuum line. Before this is done what should happen?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Flush each line with a vacuum line disinfectant and then water prior to removing traps from evacuation lines.
315 What commonly used device can cause cross-contamination if the patient's lips seal around it?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Saliva ejectors may allow bacteria from the evacuation line to flush back into the mouth if the patient's lips close tightly around it, creating a seal.
316 An assistant removes packages from the sterilizer that are still wet. What can happen
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Microbes may penetrate the package if it is wet and allow contamination of the sterilized instruments.
317 The office manager trains newly hired employees regarding hazardous communication standards. When should this training take place?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All staff should have training annually and whenever new hazardous materials are added in the office. Training should be documented.
318 What agency's guidelines for infection control establish the standard of care for dental practitioners?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The CDC is not a regulatory agency, but their guidelines for infection control in dental health care settings establish the standard of care for US dental practitioners.
319 What is the most important infection control law in dentistry?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The bloodborne pathogens standard, regulated by OSHA, is the most important law in regards to infection control in dentistry. The bloodeborne pathogens standard protects healthcare workers from becoming infected with diseases transmitted by patients.
320 Standard precautions" is the newer, expanded concept term used by the CDC for what previous terminology?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Universal precautions were expanded by the CDC to include other bodily fluids and contact with non-intact skin or mucous membranes, and re-coined "standard precautions."
321 At the end of the day, back office staff change out of their soiled PPE clothing before leaving the workplace. Laundering this clothing is the responsibility of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The employer is responsible for providing laundry services for contaminated PPE. Many offices keep laundry facilities on site.
322 The "Employee Right-to-Know Law" refers to what?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The hazard communication standard requires employers to use hazard communication programs in the workplace to identify hazardous chemicals for their employees.
323 Which of the following is a classification of waste?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above examples are classifications of waste in the dental office. Additional classifications include Infectious or Regulated wastes.
324 Which of the following is NOT information found on an MSDS sheet?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Radiologic data is not information found on an MSDS sheet. Information found is general product info, hazardous ingredients, physical hazard, fire and explosion, health hazard, reactivity, spill or leak procedures, special protection information and special precautions.
325 An assistant with expanded function responsibilities performs a coronal polish and then removes her PPE. Which PPE should be removed first upon the completion of routine treatment of a patient?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Gloves should be the first PPE removed following routine dental treatment. This prevents the cross-contamination of microorganisms from the gloves onto other PPE, like eyewear.
326 At the end of a surgical extraction, the assistant removes his PPE. Which of the following PPE equipment should be removed last?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The jacket is removed last. Be sure to turn the jacket or lab coat inside out so that it does not touch anything after it has been removed.
327 What agency regulates categories of waste and how they are to be disposed of?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
EPA - the Environmental Protection Agency regulates the categories of waste from dental offices and how each type of waste should be disposed of.
328 The EPA regulates which of the following items used in dentistry?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Chemical sterilants are regulated by the EPA, but anesthesia and prophy paste are not under the EPA's jurisdiction
329 The high-volume evacuation can be used to reduce the spread of microorganisms by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Reducing aerosols during treatment, such as ultrasonic or high-speed handpiece use, makes the high-volume evacuation helpful in reducing the spread of microorganisms during treatment.
330 Biofilm can be completely eliminated from dental unit water lines by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Biofilm cannot be completely removed from unit water lines, but some methods do reduce the rates of bacteria in the lines.
331 An assistant sets up an operatory for the next treatment procedure. After the room is cleaned and disinfected, surface barriers are placed where appropriate. These barriers should be put on by using:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Clean, dry hands are all that is necessary for the placement of surface barriers such as headrest covers and light handle covers.
332 Extracted teeth are considered what type of waste?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Extracted teeth are considered regulated waste. Teeth and other body tissues are potentially infectious and are to be disposed of appropriately.
333 The dental assistant is monitoring a patient who is receiving nitrous oxide. Which of the following is NOT something that should be done?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The assistant should not talk frequently with the patient. This will allow the nitrous oxide to leave the patient's airway and enter the treatment area instead of the scavenger system.
334 A microorganism that has a high capability to produce a disease within a host is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A pathogenic microorganism's virulence determines whether or not the pathogen is highly pathogenic. It may not be virulent at all, and only prone to cause disease or infection in susceptible hosts, or very virulent and cause disease in anyone.
335 When there is an absence of disease causing organisms, it is described as being:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Asepsis refers to when something is free of disease causing bacteria or other germs, and is sterile.
336 The receptionist brings a file back to the dentist to alert them that a new patient has a communicable disease. Which of the following diseases would cause a patient to not be treated in a dental office?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Patients with any of these diseases should be treated based on their current health status or elective dental treatment needs, as coordinated with their primary care physician if needed.
337 Which of the following is considered a semicritical dental instrument?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An x-ray mounting device is considered semi-critical in regards to CDC categorization when it comes to patient care items.
338 When caring for a dental handpiece, which of the following would be the best method for disinfection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Disinfecting the surface with a wipe or spray-wipe-spray technique is not adequate, nor is pre-soaking the handpiece as this could cause damage to the inside. Instead, cleaning off the outside surface and then running it through the steam autoclave is appropriate.
339 When using a liquid soak sterilization system, how much immersion time is required to achieve disinfection?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Five hours is the appropriate answer for disinfection time. Ten hours provides sterilization, but less time simply achieves disinfection.
340 Holding solution should be used prior to ultrasonic soaks when:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Instruments cannot be cleaned immediately. This is the only time a holding solution, or pre-soak should be used. It helps prevent residue from hardening onto the instruments before they are properly cleaned.
341 Which of the following equipment cleans instruments by removing debris?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ultrasonic cleaners help remove debris from instruments by using high frequencies of sound waves to vibrate off layers of blood or other residue prior to the instrument being placed in the sterilizer.
342 Surgical instruments such as scalpels or extraction forceps would be classified as what type of instrument?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Critical instruments are used for invasive procedures such as surgery or extractions. By knowing what classification the instruments belong in, the appropriate sterilization system can be used.
343 Which of the following is a example of a non-critical dental instrument/equipment?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Non-critical dental instruments or equipment are those that only come into contact with a patient's skin, such as the lead collar.
344 Sterilization areas should have the following work flow:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A proper sterilization area should flow with a dirty or contaminated area, into a precleaning, packaging area, then to the sterilization and storage area.

Dental Radiography 

345 What type of film allows the entire dentition to be viewed on a single film?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Panoramic films allow the entire dentition to be viewed on a single, large film.
346 Which of the following is not a main component of a panoramic x-ray unit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Panoramic film is not a major component of a panoramic x-ray unit. The main components are the tubehead, head positioner and exposure controls.
347 What type of device does digital radiography use to record images taken of the patient's teeth?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Electronic sensors are used in lieu of standard x-ray films when recording images of a patient's teeth. While standard films can have their image scanned into an electronic program, they are not by definition, digital x-rays.
348 Which of the following inflicts the most radiation on a patient?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
FMX series inflict more radiation on a patient because they require multiple exposures for all 20 films. There is less radiation needed with a panoramic x-ray.
349 What step helps prevent a large radiolucent area near the palate as seen on panoramic x-rays?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Having the patient place their tongue in the roof of their mouth during a panoramic x-ray prevents a large radiolucent area in the palate on the processed x-ray.
350 Why does digital radiography require less radiation than traditional x-rays?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sensors are more sensitive with digital radiography than traditional x-ray films, allowing the exposure time to be less, reducing radiation.
351 Digital x-ray sensors:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Intraoral sensors are waterproofed by the manufacturer, but because they cannot be sterilized, they must have a disposable barrier placed on them prior to use with each patient.
352 What technique is the preferred exposure method for digital sensors?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Parallelling allows for the most accurate imaging, making the placement method of choice for digital sensors.
353 Which of the following is not an advantage in regards to digital x-ray sensors?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sensor size is not an advantage when it comes to digital x-rays, because they are often bulky and thick.
354 Which of the following is NOT part of a film packet?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Inner wrap is not part of a film packet. The film packet is comprised of the outer wrap, inner black paper, film and lead foil.
355 What makes it possible to produce duplicate sets of radiographs without additional radiation or the need to use a duplicating machine?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Using double film packets allows 2 films to be exposed at one time, so there is a duplicate of the film without need of additional x-ray exposure or duplication.
356 What size film is usually used for occlusal radiographs?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Size 4 film is appropriate for occlusal radiographs but is too large for other intraoral radiographs.
357 What size film is appropriate for use as a PA on an upper incisor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Size 1 film is most appropriate for upper anterior PAs.
358 What use is a size 2 film most appropriate for?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Posterior PAs and Adult BWX are appropriate uses for size 2 film.
359 Which of the following is one of the basic techniques for obtaining PA x-rays?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Paralleling is one of the basic techniques for obtaining PA x-rays. The other is bisecting the angle.
360 What technique places film in line with the long axis of the teeth to be radiographed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Paralleling places the film parallel with the long axis of the teeth.
361 When using the paralleling technique, in what direction is the x-ray beam aimed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The x-ray beam is aimed at 90 degrees when using the parallel technique. This is because the film is parallel with the long axis of the tooth, allowing the beam to travel straight ahead.
362 Which of the following requires the use of a film-holding instrument?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Paralleling techniques require the use of a film-holding instrument in order to maintain the position of the film with the long axis of the tooth.
363 When placing a film in a PID, which of the following is correct?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The raised dot should face the PID and toward the occlusal surface. This identifies the proper position of the film as well as prevents the raised dot from being over any structures that may need to be seen on the x-ray.
364 What is the position on the patient's face where the central x-ray beam is aimed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Point of entry is the position on the patient's face where the beam is aimed.
365 What angulation must be perpendicular to the film and long axis of the teeth using the paralleling technique?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Vertical angulation, the up and down motion, must be perpendicular to the film and axis of the teeth if using the paralleling technique.
366 Failing to have the x-ray beam in a perpendicular position in a paralleling technique will result in:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Foreshortening or elongation will occur if the beam is not perpendicular in the paralleling technique.
367 What will cause overlapping of proximal contacts?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Improper horizontal angulation (side to side) will cause overlapping of proximal contacts in teeth.
368 In bisecting the angle, which of the following is NOT true?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The angle between the film and the teeth is bisected no matter how many degrees of angulation the film is placed from the tooth.
369 What occurs when the x-ray beam is not centered with the x-ray film?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cone cutting occurs when the x-ray beam is not centered with the x-ray film, because it prevents the beam from coming into contact with the film.
370 FMX series consist of:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
10-18 PA films with any additional BWX films are what is necessary to comprise an FMX.
371 Premolar BWX should include:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The distal half of the cuspid crown should be viewable on a premolar BWX when it is placed appropriately.
372 Molar BWX film should be placed:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Centered over the 2nd molars is the appropriate placement for molar BWX shots.
373 What improper placement can cause misdiagnosis on BWX x-rays?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Improper horizontal angulation can cause overlapping of the proximal surfaces and lead to misdiagnosis.
374 Where is the film placed when occlusal films are taken?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Against the occlusal surfaces, with the patient gently biting down on the film, is how occlusal films are to be taken.
375 Which of the following is NOT a use for occlusal radiographs?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
To locate periapical abscesses. These would be best located by taking a PA in the symptomatic area.
376 The white side of intraoral film should always face:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Toward the teeth is where the white side of intraoral film should always face. If it is placed away from the teeth, then the lead film will interfere with the x-ray beam reaching the film inside of the packet.
377 Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Superimposed images from double film exposure has left 2 angles of radiographs on one film.
378 Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Failure to remove jewelry will cause ghosting of metallic substances such as earrings onto other areas of the film.
379 Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cone cutting is due to the beam not being centered over the x-ray film.
380 Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Elongation occurs when the beam is placed at an inadequate vertical angulation.
381 Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In this x-ray, the film was placed backward during exposure. This caused the crimping effect from the lead foil that blocked the x-ray beam.
382 Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The x-ray exhibits inadequate film placement. The patient should have bitten down against the PID so that the occlusal surface of the teeth were in line with the edge of the film.
383 Select the appropriate description for the x-ray below:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bending of film is evidenced on x-rays by straight lines in the corners of the film where it has been bent to fit into the patient's mouth. This interferes with diagnostic capabilities.
384 After processing a film, it comes out completely clear. What is the probable cause?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The probable cause is that the x-ray machine did not expose the film. If the film was not exposed, then all crystals will wash off of the film and it will come out clear.
385 When the vertical angulation of the x-ray beam is too low, it will cause:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Elongation is caused when the vertical angulation of the x-ray beam is too low.
386 Blurred images on a film may be caused by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The patient moving would cause blurred images on a film. Because x-ray beams travel straight, if the tubehead is slightly vibrating it will not cause blurred images. Old chemicals could cause clouding on the film, but not blurred images.
387 A shorter object to film distance:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When possible, limit the amount of space between the film and the teeth as much as possible.
388 A longer PID results in:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A longer PID results in less magnification. On the other hand, if a PID is shorter, then the tooth is magnified more.
389 Contrast of the x-ray is controlled by:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
kVp controls the contrast of dental x-rays
390 Density, or the overall darkness of an x-ray, is controlled by what setting?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
kVp settings control the density or overall darkness of an x-ray.
391 Which of the following is not appropriate after a lead apron has been used?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Folding a lead apron could cause the protective layer inside of the apron to crack, allowing radiation to penetrate through the apron to the patient.
392 What is the recommended size of x-ray beams, which are targeted toward the patient's face for dental radiographs?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
2.75" is the appropriate and recommended size of x-ray beams that are to be targeted toward a patient's face during dental radiographs.
393 What type of position indication device produces scatter radiation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cone PIDs produce scatter radiation. Other PIDs which are cylindar or rectangular do not, because they restrict the direction of x-ray beams to a straight forward direction.
394 Adjustment of what setting can change the density on a dental radiograph?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Kilovoltage affects the density (overall darkness) of dental radiographs. Adjusting the kV to a lower setting would improve film contrast.
395 A wet reading can be done when the x-ray film is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Removing the x-ray film from the fixer after 3 minutes can allow for a wet reading. It must then be returned to the fixer for the appropriate length of time and processed as normal.
396 What type of x-ray would be most appropriate to view the root apex of tooth #28?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periapical film is the most appropriate radiograph when viewing the apex of teeth.
397 What type of x-ray would be most appropriate when screening for interproximal recurrent decay?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bitewing x-rays are most appropriate for intermittent routine use when screening for possible interproximal decay.
398 The curve of Spee:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The curve of Spee curves up toward the distal teeth. The curve of Spee aids in mounting BWX radiographs and is the occlusal line which curves up from the midline toward the more distal teeth
399 When using duplicate film for a patient x-ray, which of the following must be done?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When using duplicate film for a patient x-ray, it should be exposed exactly the same as a normal, single film packet would be.
400 How often should bitewing radiographs be prescribed by the doctor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Bitewing radiographs should be prescribed when necessary due to patient needs and predispositions. Each patient has individual dental care needs, so exposing them to radiation all on the same basis is not appropriate.
401 Which of the following would appear radiolucent on a film?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The nerve or pulp of the tooth will appear radiolucent on x-rays because the nerve tissue does not block x-ray beams from reaching the film.
402 If a film is not exposed long enough, when it is processed it will appear:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
By not having the appropriate length of exposure time, fewer x-ray beams reach the film. This causes a decrease in crystals to react to radiation, which are then washed off through processing, resulting in a lighter film.
403 A thyroid collar:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A thyroid collar Is designed to be apart from or attached to a lead apron during radiographs. This includes all gradiographs. Some lead aprons include a built in thyroid collar, but those that do not require the use of a separate thyroid collar during radiographs.
404 What type of radiograph is useful by orthodontists in regards to the profile of a patient's face?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cephalometric radiographs show the side view of the facial bones, which aid in profile analysis in orthodontic treatment.
405 Filtration of an x-ray beam with an aluminum disk:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Filtration of an x-ray beam with an aluminum disk strengthens the beam. This is due to the removal of weaker, long wavelength x-rays from the beam, leaving stronger, shorter wavelength x-rays.
406 What length do PIDs typically come in?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Long PIDs are 16 inches long while short PIDs are 8 inches long.
407 What control adjusts the film shades of grey, black and white in an x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
kVp settings adjust the grey, black and white on dental x-rays. A higher contrast in color will result in more obvious comparison of things like fillings or pathology.
408 What defines the overall blackness on a dental x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Density is the overall darkness of an x-ray, and allows proper diagnosis of anatomical areas on the film.
409 What settings control the density of an x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
mA (milliamperage) controls, when adjusted, will change how dense an x-ray film's appearance will be. Higher mA will result in a darker film, lower mA a lighter film.
410 The differences in shades of grey on an x-ray film is called:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Contrast is the differences in shades of grey areas on the dental x-ray that show anatomy, restorations or conditions.
411 Processing solutions are considered to be:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Processing solutions are considered to be hazardous chemicals. Processing solutions should require PPE during handling as well as appropriate disposal methods.
412 What is the first solution that the films encounter during processing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The developing solution softens the emulsion on the film, partially processing them.
413 After exposure to developing solution, which is the next solution during film processing that is necessary to dip films into?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The fixer solution removes unexposed crystals from the film, creating the clear areas on the film.
414 Which of the following is not an appropriate light source in a darkroom?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Red light bulbs are not appropriate for safe lights. A regular safelight and a source of white light safelight are appropriate.
415 Temperatures of developer chemicals in an automatic processor should range between:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
85-105 degrees is the appropriate temperature range of developer chemicals inside of an automatic processor.
416 Which of the following is not a common cause of automatic processor breakdown?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Inadequate temperature regulation is not a common cause of automatic processor breakdown. Failing to properly clean the rollers and replenish chemicals properly are.
417 In regards to duplicating radiographs, which of the following is NOT true?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Duplication film cannot be exposed to x-rays and should not be placed in a patient's mouth. It should only be used to copy x-rays that have already been taken.
418 Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of films that appear too light?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Overexposure does not cause films to appear lighter. It would cause them to appear darker.
419 Which of the following would NOT be a possible cause of films appearing too dark?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Underdevelopment would not cause films to appear too dark., It would cause them to appear lighter.
420 Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of fogged film appearance?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Incomplete wash would not cause a fogged film appearance. Stray radiation, improper use of a safelight or expired film could cause fogging.
421 The following film shows an example of what?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Static electricity is noted on the appearance of x-ray films by having tree-like or lightening shaped black lines.
422 The following film shows an example of what?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Dirty rollers inside of an automatic processor machine will leave line-like distortions across the surface of the film.
423 The following film is an example of what?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Splashes of fixer on the film prior to processing will remove undeveloped crystals, causing a white area on the film.
424 The following is an example of?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Film overlapping during processing (this particular photo shows overlapping during the developer phase of processing).
425 The following film shows an example of what?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Splatter of developer prior to processing will cause dark spots on the film.
426 The following film shows an example of what?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Inadequate immersion in the developer solution would result in a blank area on the film, as unprocessed crystals would be removed during the fixing and wash solutions.
427 The longer a duplicating film is exposed to light, the _______ the film will become.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
As light passes through to the duplicating film, it makes it lighter, which is the opposite of dental x-ray films.
428 How many tanks are inside of an automatic processor?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Three tanks are in automatic processors: the developer, fixer and water tanks.
429 Automatic processors require:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
If an automatic processor does not have a daylight loader, then it must be loaded in a dark room. All films should be disinfected prior to their placing into daylight loaders to prevent cross-contamination
430 Which of the following is NOT part of practicing infection control in regards to film processing?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Wiping dirty films down and then opening them over a paper towel is not part of proper infection control in regards to film processing. Dirty films should be wiped down and then placed in a clean cup. The clean cup should be transported to the developer or placed inside of the daylight loader. This prevents contamination of the processor and daylight loader.
431 When mounting radiographs, the ADA recommends that the embossed dot should:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
When mounting radiographs, the ADA recommends that the embossed dot should face toward the practitioner. This allows the practitioner to determine which side of the film is face up and what side of the face it belongs to.
432 Which of the following is NOT a group that radiographs belong in when mounting?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
An FMX contains all 3 groups that radiographs are mounted in - bitewing, anterior and posterior periapicals.
433 What anatomical landmark helps determine a mandibular from a maxillary tooth when mounting radiographs?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Maxillary sinuses are anatomical landmarks that help determine maxillary and mandibular locations on radiographs. While the slope of the jawbone may act as a crutch when mounting films, it is not a landmark.
434 What is the radiolucent area viewable on x-rays near the root of the first premolar?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mental foramen is the circular radiolucent area that is viewable on x-rays near the apex of first premolar roots.
435 What is the radiolucent line area around the root of the tooth as it appears on an x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Periodontal ligament space appears as a think radiolucent line around the tooth root.
436 What is the radiolucent line that extends through the area near the lower molars?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The mandibular canal houses nerve tissue and appears as radiolucent through the mandibular molar region on x-rays.
437 Identify the following anatomical landmark:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Mandibular Coronoid Process is the bony protrusion on the jawbone that appears as radiopaque on some maxillary posterior periapical films.
438 Identify the following anatomical landmark
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Zygomatic process (the cheek bone) is this radiopaque arch area. It is thicker and more consistent in shape than the nearby nasal sinuses
439 Identify the following anatomical landmark:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
External oblique ridge is the bony ridge of the mandible, near the posterior mandibular molars.
440 Identify the following anatomical landmark:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The sinuses are visible landmarks when mounting upper posterior x-rays like periapicals and some bitewing films.
441 Identify the following anatomical landmark:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Median palatine sutures are located between the anterior central incisors, where the palate fuses together in the middle during development.
442 Who owns the dental radiographs in a file at a dental practice?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The dentist owns dental radiographs even though they have been paid for by the patient as they are a diagnostic part of a patient's permanent record.
443 When forwarding radiographs on to a patient's new dentist, which of the following is NOT true?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Original films should be kept by the dentist, with duplicate films sent directly to the new dentist.
444 Part of informed consent in regards to taking dental x-rays on a patient includes:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above examples are part of informed consent in regards to taking dental x-rays on a patient.
445 On an x-ray, which of the following will appear as radiolucent?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Decay appears as radiolucent on an x-ray film. The other restorations appear as radiopaque as they do not allow x-ray beams to travel through them and reach the film.
446 Which of the following appears the most radiopaque on a dental x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Enamel appears more radiopaque on an x-ray than the other structures because it is the densest.
447 Which of the following films would possibly show nasal fossa?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Upper anterior periapicals of the incisors would possibly show the nasal fossa.
448 What is the effect of x-rays in humans that causes disruption of cell structure and damage to living tissues?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Ionization occurs when x-rays come into contact with tissues, disrupting their cell structure.
449 What is a bundle of energy that has no weight or mass?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Photons are bundles of pure energy and have no weight or mass.
450 X-rays are a type of what kind of radiation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Electronmagnetic radiation includes radio, light, television and x-rays. These waves travel in a straight line with wavelike motions.
451 The _______ the wavelength, the greater the energy.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Shorter wavelengths have higher energy and penetrate matter easier than longer wavelengths.
452 What type of radiation occurs when x-rays are deflected by impact with other objects, such as the patient's face?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Scatter radiation occurs when the wavelengths are bounced off of surfaces that they come into contact with, such as the patient.
453 What type of radiation is less penetrating than others and is given off after the initial x-ray beam comes into contact with the patient?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Secondary radiation is less penetrating because it has become weaker after initial contact with other tissues in its path.
454 What is the stream of radiation called that is emitted from the x-ray unit?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Primary radiation is the stream that the x-ray unit emits, also known as the central ray.
455 What type of radiation is due to faulty x-ray tubeheads?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Leakage radiation is when it escapes in different directions, due to faulty equipment.
456 Which of the following is a system of measurement used to measure radiation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Each of the 3 choices are among others included in the traditional and SI units of measurement in regard to radiation.
457 Which of the following does not belong to the standard system of radiation measurement?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The gray does not belong to the standard system of radiation measurement. It belongs to the SI, or newer system of metric equivalent.
458 What is the amount of radiation energy that is absorbed by body tissue called?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Absorbed dose is the actual absorbed dose of radiation into tissue.
459 1 rad = _______ Gy.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
0.01 Gy is equal to 1 rad.
460 Dose equivalence is used to measure and compare effects of radiation, and is measured in:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Sv and rem are used to measure dose equivalence to compare the effects.
461 1 rem = ________ Sv.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
0.01 Sv is equal to 1 rem.
462 What does MPD stand for?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Maximum permissible dose is also known as MPD
463 MPD for an occupationally exposed person is:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
0.05 is the whole-body MPD for occupationally exposed persons
464 What is the MPD for an occupationally exposed pregnant woman?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
0.005 Sv is the maximum permissible dose for occupationally exposed pregnant women.
465 What method helps reduce exposure to radiation in all methods?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
ALARA : As Low As Reasonably Achievable helps to reduce radiation exposure.
466 Which of the following parts of the body can be changed by radiation exposure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above may be changed due to radiation exposure.
467 Which of the following type of tissue is more sensitive to radiation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Reproductive cells have a high sensitivity to radiation. The others are medium to low sensitivity.
468 What is the period of time between exposure to radiation and the time when the effects become evident?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The latent period is the time lag between the time that x-rays are absorbed (exposed. to when the effects of radiation become evident.
469 What is the exposure limit called for those that are exposed to radiation as part of their occupation when taking safety measures?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
MPD is the maximum permissible dose exposure limit for employees when observing radiation safety measures.
470 What type of radiation occurs in large dosages in a short amount of time?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Acute radiation exposure is when large dosages are absorbed in a short amount of time. An example of an acute radiation exposure would include a nuclear accident.
471 What type of exposure is when someone is exposed to small amounts of radiation over a long period of time?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Chronic radiation exposure is when small amounts of radiation are absorbed over a long period of time.
472 What type of radiation effects are passed on to future generations?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Genetic radiation effects are due to damage of reproductive cells and are passed on to future generations
473 What type of genetic radiation affects a parent but is not passed on to future generations?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Somatic radiation affects a parent but is not passed on to future generations because it has not damaged reproductive cells.
474 What protective device should be worn by every patient that is having dental x-rays taken?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Lead aprons should be worn by every dental patient that is having dental x-rays taken. The lead apron protects vital organs from radiation exposure.
475 Pregnant women that come to the dental office for x-rays should...
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
In the case of dental emergencies, x-rays on pregnant women should be selective and always use a lead apron to cover the patient's abdomen. Postpone routine x-rays for after they have given birth.
476 Who is responsible for ordering dental radiographs on each patient?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The dentist is the only person responsible for prescribing and ordering x-rays on dental patients.
477 Radiographs should be taken:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Radiographs should be taken as needed. Each patient's dental needs are different and should be considered before prescribing routine x-rays.
478 What is the most effective way to reduce a patient's exposure to x-rays?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Use of fast speed film is the single most effective measure to reduce exposure to x-rays. Fast speed film is rated in a range of A to F.
479 What is the fastest intraoral film available?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
F-speed film is the fastest intraoral film available for dental x-ray use.
480 What determines the film speed?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Size of crystals in the emulsion coating on an x-ray film is what determines the speed of the film. Larger crystals need less radiation.
481 What type of radiation comes from natural sources?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Background radiation comes from natural sources like radioactive materials in the ground, or from cosmic radiation.
482 Tubeheads must be equipped with which of the following in order to limit radiation exposure?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A lead collimator, aluminum filter and position-indicator device are needed for dental x-ray tubeheads to limit radiation exposure.
483 The aluminum filter in an x-ray tubehead filters out:
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Long wavelengths are weaker and add unnecessary radiation exposure. The lead filter prevents these from reaching the patient or operator.
484 What produces a higher energy x-ray beam that provides more penetration?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Filtration produces higher energy beams because they filter out weak beams, leaving only strong penetrating beams.
485 What is used to restrict the size and shape of an x-ray beam?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
A collimator uses a lead plate with an opening just large enough for x-ray beams to go through in order to expose the x-ray. This reduces the size of the beam as well as exposure to radiation.
486 What type of PID provides less spread of x-ray beam radiation?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Long PIDs prevent spread of x-ray beams, leaving only straighter beams to exit the tubehead toward the dental x-ray.
487 Which of the following must be used on all patients receiving x-rays?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Lead aprons and thyroid collars must be worn on all dental patients that are receiving x-rays in order to reduce unnecessary radiation exposure.
488 Who should hold the film for a child that is unable to cooperate for a necessary dental x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The parent or caregiver should hold the film for a necessary dental x-ray when a child is unable to hold it themselves. If the dental professional held the film each time this happened, they would receive long term radiation exposure.
489 What is used to measure the amount of radiation exposure for dental care workers?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Pocket dosimeters, also called film badges, are used to monitor and measure the amount of radiation incurred during occupational exposure.
490 Always stand at least ____ feet away from an x-ray unit during use.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Six feet away is the necessary distance to stand from x-ray units during use, only if a barrier is not available.
491 To reduce exposure, it is better to stand where in relation to the primary beam?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
At a right angle to the primary beam will reduce exposure, as the primary beam will travel directly in front and could possibly travel directly behind.
492 What part of the x-ray tube generates electrons?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Cathode is the tungsten filament where the electrons are generated in an x-ray tube.
493 What part of the x -ray tubehead has a tungsten block inside of a copper stem that acts as a target for electrons?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Anode is the area inside o the tubehead that acts as a target for electrons.
494 What is the metal disk that acts as a filter, which has a small opening to allow x-ray beams to leave the tubehead?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Collimators reduce the size and shape of x-ray beams as they leave the tubehead, acting as a filter for the beam.
495 What controls the amount of electrons that are produced in an x-ray beam?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The milliamperage selector - mA, increases the quantity of electrons.
496 What is used to control the penetrating power of an x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
kV, or kilavoltage selector is used to control the penetrating abilities, or quality of an x-ray beam.
497 Which of the following appear as radiolucent on a dental x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
All of the above structures appear as radiolucent on dental x-rays. They are less dense, thus resulting in radiolucency on the x-ray film.
498 Which of the following appear as radiopaque on a dental x-ray?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
Fillings appear as radiopaque on dental x-rays, because they are denser and allow less x-ray beams to penetrate them.
499 What amount of radiation produces very little chance of injury?
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
MPD, or maximum permissible dose, is the limit for occupationally exposed individuals and the amount allows for very little chance of injury.
500 The larger the size of crystals on a film, ________________.
Incorrect. Please choose another answer.
The larger the size of crystals on a film, the faster the film speed. Large crystals are more sensitive to the x-ray beam and require less radiation for exposure on the film.

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Our practice exam follows the CDA blueprint component exam areas: GC, RHS & ICE:
 
1. General Chairside Assisting (GC)

GC Exam Blueprint:
  • Evaluation
  • Patient Managemnt and Administration
  • Chairside Dentistry
  • Dental Materials
GC Exam Summary:
  • 95 multiple-choice questions
  • 75 minutes testing time
2. Radiation Health and Safety (RHS)
 
RHS Exam Blueprint:
  • Purpose and Technique
  • Radiation Protection
  • Infection Control
RHS Exam Summary:
  • 75 multiple-choice questions
  • 1 hour testing time
3. Infection Control (ICE)
 
ICE Exam Blueprint:
  • Prevent of Disease Transmission
  • Prevention of Cross-contamination
  • Process of Instruments and Devices
  • Occupational Safety and Admin Protocols
ICE Exam Summary:
  • 80 multiple-choice questions
  • 1 hour testing time
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