Login
Contact
Dental Assistant Practice Test
Dental Assistant Test Guide
Flash Cards
2025 Edition
Practice Test for the DANB Dental Assistant Exam
View Answers as You Go
View 1 Question at a Time
General Chairside Assistance
1.
A permanent dentition consists of how many teeth?
a. 28
b. 30
c. 32
d. 26
32 teeth make up a permanent dentition.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
2.
Which teeth are sometimes called the "eye" teeth?
a. Premolars
b. Canines
c. Incisors
d. Bicuspids
Canine teeth are sometimes called "eye teeth."
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
3.
Which proximal surface of a tooth is closest toward the midline of the body?
a. Occlusal
b. Facial
c. Incisal
d. Mesial
Mesial is the closest proximal tooth surface toward the midline of the body.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
4.
A permanent dentition consists of how many premolars?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. None
8 premolars exist in a permanent dentition
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
5.
When a mouth is divided into fourths, the parts are referred to as:
a. Quadrant
b. Arch
c. Sextant
d. Posterior/Anterior
Quadrants are the four parts when a mouth is divided into four sections: upper right, lower right, upper left and lower left.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
6.
Using the Universal System of tooth designation, what tooth is #12?
a. Maxillary right canine
b. Maxillary left first premolar
c. Maxillary left canine
d. Maxillary right first premolar
Tooth #12 is the maxillary left first premolar.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
7.
Using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording, which tooth is #25?
a. Mandibular right central incisor
b. Maxillary left second premolar
c. Mandibular left central incisor
d. Maxillary right second premolar
Maxillary left second premolar is #25 when using the ISO system of tooth recording
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
8.
What is the structure that connects cementum to the alveolar bone?
a. Dentin
b. Pulp
c. Periodontal ligament
d. Enamel
Periodontal ligament is the connective tissue fibers that encircle the tooth, attaching the cementum to the alveolar bone.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
9.
A gold crown is marked by:
a. Horizontal lines through the crown
b. Vertical lines through the crown
c. Diagonal lines through the crown
d. A solid colored crown
Diagonal lines through the crown indicate a restoration made of gold material
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
10.
A dental assistant is preparing to chart a new patient's treatment plan for the doctor. Treatment provided in a previous dental office should be charted in what color?
a. Black
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Green
Black ink is appropriate for charting treatment completed by a previous provider
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
11.
Two red vertical lines drawn between the upper central incisors on a patient chart would indicate:
a. Extraction of a mesiodens
b. Diastema
c. Drifting
d. Fixed bridge
Diastema - a space between the upper central incisors
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
12.
The recommended technique for determining a patient's pulse or respiration rate is to:
a. Measure for 15 seconds, then multiply by 4
b. Measure for 30 seconds, then multiply by 2
c. Measure for 60 seconds
d. It is not necessary to record a patient's respiration and pulse
Measure for 30 seconds, then multiply by 2, for a rate per minute.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
13.
In order to determine how much to inflate a blood pressure cuff for an accurate reading, a dental assistant measures the patient's BPM brachial pulse rate and adds ______ to determine the inflation level in mm Hg.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
40 mm Hg should be added to the brachial pulse rate in order to determine the inflation level during a blood pressure reading.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
14.
An average adult respiration rate is _______________ breaths per minute
a. 10-20
b. 15-25
c. 18-30
d. 25-35
10-20 is the average adult respiration rate.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
15.
What is the normal pulse rate in a resting adult?
a. 40-70 bpm
b. 60-100 bpm
c. 70-120 bpm
d. 80-130 bpm
60-100 bpm is the normal pulse rate in a resting adult.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
16.
Standard practice provides, and some state laws require, that a signed privacy policy be kept in a patient's file for a minimum of _______ year(s).
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
General dental assistant guidelines recommend that dental practices keep a signed privacy policy in a patients file for at least 6 years. Some state laws set the minimum at 5 years.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
17.
Which of the following is not a part of a dental examination?
a. Radiographs
b. Soft tissue inspection
c. Impressions
d. Health history review
Health history review is not a part of a dental examination> However it should be considered when assessing the patient's needs.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
18.
What classification of decay is located on the gingival third on the facial or lingual surfaces of teeth?
a. Class IV
b. Class V
c. Class II
d. Class VI
Class V decay is smooth surface decay located on the gingival third of affected teeth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
19.
While examining a patient, a dentist says he sees Class IV decay. Which of the following teeth would he be looking at?
a. Molars
b. Incisors
c. Premolars
d. Wisdom teeth
Incisors (and canines) are the only teeth to be diagnosed with class IV decay.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
20.
The area also known as the neck of the tooth is more appropriately called the:
a. CEJ
b. DEJ
c. CDJ
d. Margin
CEJ - cementoenamel junction is the junction of tooth enamel with cementum at the neck or cervix of the tooth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
21.
What type of tissue covers alveolar bone, attaching to the teeth at the margin of the gumlines?
a. Free gingivae
b. Epithelial attachment
c. Masticatory mucosa
d. Lining mucosa
Epithelial attachment is the gingiva that covers alveolar bone and attaches to teeth at the margin of the gumlines.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
22.
What is the tissue that divides the nasal cavity into 2 parts?
a. Ala
b. Philtrum
c. Septum
d. Zygomatic arch
Septum is the tissue that divides a nasal cavity through the middle into 2 parts.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
23.
Which nerve is the primary nerve for the mouth?
a. Trigeminal
b. Nasopalatine
c. Mylohyoid
d. Buccal
Trigeminal nerve is the main nerve supply to the mouth. It has both maxillary and mandibular innervation.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
24.
The pituitary gland is part of what body system?
a. Lymphatic
b. Nervous
c. Endocrine
d. Cardiovascular
Endocrine is the system which regulates glands that produce hormones, including the pituitary gland.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
25.
What position places the chair back until the patient is almost lying down?
a. Supine
b. Subsupine
c. Trendelenburg
d. Upright
Supine is when the patient is lowered until almost lying down
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
26.
What is the best method of identifying working positions by a dental auxiliary?
a. Ergonomics
b. Clock concept
c. Patient cooperation
d. Range of motion
Clock concept - dividing the treatment area into zones help to identify appropriate working positions.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
27.
When transferring an instrument to the dentist, the dental assistant should:
a. Transfer the instrument with the sharp edge pointing toward them
b. Transfer the instrument with the working end facing toward the dentist
c. Transfer the instrument with the working end facing themselves
d. Transfer the instrument with the working end facing down
A dental assistant should transfer the instrument with the working end facing themselves. This allows the dentist to receive the instrument in a way that allows immediate use without the need for adjustment.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
28.
When retrieving an instrument from a right-handed operator, the assistant uses the ______________ finger(s) of their left hand.
a. Last 2
b. First 2
c. Last 1
d. First 1
The last 2 fingers of the hand are used for retrieving instruments from the operator
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
29.
Most of the time, a dental assistant will be working in what "time zone" during a treatment procedure?
a. 7-9
b. 11-1
c. 2-4
d. 4-6
2-4 is the "time zone" that most dental assistants will spend the majority of their time in during procedures.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
30.
Which chair has a foot bar for support?
a. Dental chair
b. Assistant's stool
c. Operator's stool
d. All of the above
Assistant's stools have a foot bar for support.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
31.
The High Volume Evacuator tips should be placed slightly _______ to the tooth being prepared.
a. Occlusal
b. Lingual
c. Buccal
d. Distal
The High Volume Evacuator tips should be placed slightly distal to the tooth being prepared. This frees up operator line of sight and is more efficient at saliva removal.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
32.
What isolation method is appropriate for one or several teeth?
a. Cotton roll
b. Dry angles
c. Dental dam
d. High volume evacuator suction
Dental dam is an appropriate isolation method for one or several teeth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
33.
An adult male arrives for a scheduled root canal and crown appointment. The dental assistant prepares the instrument tray and equipment when he is seated. What size hole punch is needed for premolar and canines on a dental dam?
a. No. 1
b. No. 2
c. No. 5
d. No. 3
No. 3 hole punches are appropriate for premolar and canines when preparing a dental dam.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
34.
When removing a dry cotton roll from the mouth:
a. Moisten with water before removal
b. Grip firmly with cotton pliers
c. Retract the lip
d. Use the suction to assist in removal
Moisten a dry cotton roll with water before removal, to prevent cotton from adhering to the dry mucosa in the mouth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
35.
Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of N2O2?
a. Anemia
b. Pregnancy
c. Common cold
d. Emphysema
Anemia is not a contraindication for the use of N2O2.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
36.
What part of the gas machine houses the nitrous oxide and oxygen to combine them together for the patient to breathe?
a. Gas hose
b. Reservoir bag
c. Flowmeter
d. Mask
Reservoir bag is the chamber that houses the 2 gases for combination prior to the patient drawing them in for a breath.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
37.
Nitrous oxide has been used on a patient. For how many minutes afterward should the patient remain on 100% Oxygen?.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
5 minutes is the appropriate length of time for patients to remain on 100% oxygen after having been administered nitrous oxide during a treatment procedure.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
38.
Which of the following is an approved method by the Center for Disease Control for re-capping a used needle?
a. Using a recapping device
b. Single-handed swoop
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Both a and b are appropriate methods for needle re-capping and recommended by the CDC.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
39.
A long needle, 1 5/8" in length, is used for what type of injections?
a. Infiltration
b. Periodontal ligament
c. Palatal block
d. Mandibular block
Mandibular block injections require the use of the "long" needle.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
40.
What type of injection involves the tissues near the apex of a tooth?
a. Block
b. Nerve block
c. Periodontal ligament injection
d. Infiltration
Infiltration is the technique that is used when injecting anesthetic around a tooth to affect the tissues around and near the apex of the tooth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
41.
Which of the following is NOT a health concern when it comes to selecting the appropriate form of local anesthetic?
a. Pregnancy
b. Joint replacement
c. Elevated blood pressure
d. Cardiovascular disease
Joint replacement is not a health concern to be considered when selecting the form of local anesthetic to use.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
42.
What is added to an anesthetic agent to lengthen the effect by decreasing blood flow?
a. Vasoconstrictors
b. Vasodilators
c. Lidocaine
d. Septocaine
Vasoconstrictors act by constricting the blood vessels thereby decreasing blood flow in the area and lengthening the amount of time that the local anesthetic is active in that location.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
43.
How long should topical anesthetic be applied to the mucosa prior to an injection?
a. 30-45 seconds
b. 45-60 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 5-10 minutes
2-5 minutes is the appropriate length of time that a topical anesthetic should be left on the mucosa before injections for local anesthetic.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
44.
What may be added to burs in order to shorten preparation time by improving cutting ability?
a. Titanium
b. Coarse grit coating
c. Diamond stones
d. Inward slope
Diamond stones are added to the working surfaces of burs, to improve cutting ability.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
45.
Which of the following burs would be appropriate for a crown-prep setup tray?
a. Round bur
b. Flame-shaped bur
c. Round end taper bur
d. Pear bur
A flame-shaped bur would be an appropriate option to place on a crown-prep tray, as it is used to help make adjustments in crown preparations.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
46.
Low speed handpieces are used for
a. Prophy angles
b. Round bur
c. Finishing bur
d. All of the above
Prophy angles are used on low speed handpieces.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
47.
What type of handpiece operates at speeds of up to 450,000 rpm?
a. Slow speed
b. High speed
c. Optic light
d. Laboratory
A high-speed handpiece operate at up to speeds of 450,000 rpm.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
48.
A 16-year-old female has an appointment for an MOD amalgam on #14. What instrument is used to carve amalgam on the occlusal surface of a tooth?
a. Excavator
b. Condenser
c. Burnisher
d. Diskoid/cleoid
Diskoid/cleoid is used to carve the amalgam into an anatomical appearance on the occlusal surface of teeth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
49.
Which of the following is Not a step in sealant placement?
a. Isolation
b. Preparation
c. Fluoridation
d. Curing
Fluoridation is not a step in sealant placement. Sealant placement includes isolation, preparation, conditioning, placement and curing.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
50.
Which of the following would a bristled brush style prophy angle NOT be appropriate to use on?
a. Pits
b. Fissures
c. Dentin
d. Enamel
Dentin is not appropriate for the use of bristle brush prophy angles because they are very abrasive on the soft dentin's surface.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
51.
What type of stain is on the surface of enamel and may be removed through hand scaling or rubber cup polishing?
a. Extrinsic
b. Endogenous
c. Intrinsic
d. Exogenous
Extrinsic stains are those on the outer surface of the teeth, which may be polished or scaled off.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
52.
A dental assistant who is approved to perform expanded functions prepares to perform coronal polishing on a patient after the hygienist has done the scaling. What is done to ensure the prevention of removing small amounts of enamel during coronal polishing?
a. Using a mild grit paste
b. Selective polishing
c. Air polishing
d. Prophylaxis
Selective polishing - or only polishing teeth where stain is visible on the functional crown, should be polished.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
53.
A gingival retraction cord:
a. Extends the impression area slightly below the finished preparation
b. Extends the impression 2mm below the gingival margin
c. Assures no gingival overgrowth in areas of crown preparation
d. Prevents impression material from entering into the sulcus
A gingival retraction cord extends the impression area slightly below the finished preparation. This widens the sulcus area around the tooth and gently pushes the gums back for a more accurate impression.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
54.
Which of the following can help prevent hemorrhage during a crown prep procedure?
a. Using a wider retraction cord
b. Using a poly-cotton blend retraction cord
c. Using a 100% cotton retraction cord
d. Saturating the retraction cord in astringent and vasoconstrictor
Saturating the retraction cord in astringent and vasoconstrictor helps to control hemorrhage during a crown prep procedure by constricting blood vessels near the cord.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
55.
Which of the following would contraindicate a partial denture?
a. The need to replace several teeth in one quadrant
b. Periodontal disease which may threaten remaining teeth
c. A patient that cannot tolerate the treatment procedures of a fixed bridge
d. Good oral hygiene
Periodontal disease which may threaten remaining teeth would contraindicate a partial denture. This is because the patient may be at risk to lose these teeth and then be in need of another appliance, such as a full denture.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
56.
Which of the following is the metal extension on a partial denture, which rests on the alveolar ridge and holds the artificial teeth?
a. Retainer
b. Framework
c. Saddle
d. Rests
A saddle is the metal mesh which extends over the alveolar ridge to support artificial teeth, and covered in acrylic.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
57.
When taking a shade for a dental appliance, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
a. Teeth should be wet during match
b. Teeth should be dry during match
c. The shade guide should be disinfected after use
d. The shade guide is a semi-critical item
Teeth should be wet during shade matching - teeth appear a different shade when they are completely dry and this shade would not be appropriate for matching the rest of the teeth as they will always be coated in saliva.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
58.
What is the amalgam material that helps hold a fixed restoration in place?
a. Pin
b. Post and core
c. Core buildup
d. All of the above
Core buildups are made of amalgam and used to add enough structural support to hold a fixed restoration such as a crown.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
59.
What type of restoration is made of a pontic with wing like frame extensions that fit on adjacent teeth?
a. Bonded bridge
b. Maryland bridge
c. Partial denture
d. Both a and b
Maryland and bonded bridges are the same type of restoration, with a pontic tooth that is supported with wing-like frame extensions that are bonded to adjacent teeth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
60.
What term refers to the tooth that support a bridge?
a. Unit
b. Abutment
c. Pontic
d. Appliance
Abutment refers to the supporting teeth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
61.
Which of the following is not an example of a cast restoration?
a. Inlay
b. Fixed bridge
c. Partial denture
d. Crown
Partial dentures are not examples of cast restorations. A cast restoration is made of porcelain or gold and fits on a prepared tooth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
62.
Which of the following is the most widely used periodontal dressing?
a. Noneugenol dressing
b. Zinc Oxide-Eugenol dressing
c. Both a and b
d. No dressings are needed for periodontal procedures
Noneugenol dressing is the most commonly used periodontal dressing, because it has a smooth surface and rapid set time.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
63.
Which of the following is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue?
a. Gingival curettage
b. Gingivectomy
c. Gingivoplasty
d. Scaling and Root Planing
Gingivectomy is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
64.
What instruments converts high frequency sound waves into rapid vibrations for clinical use?
a. Ultraviolet curing light
b. Prophy angle
c. Ultrasonic scaler
d. High speed handpiece
Ultrasonic scalers use high speed sound waves that transform into mechanical energy, allowing for the easy removal of calculus on tooth surfaces.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
65.
Which of the following is not for use when removing calculus deposits below the gumline?
a. Gracey curette
b. Sickle scaler
c. Universal curette
d. All of the above are appropriate for subgingival scaling
Sickle scalers are not appropriate for use below the gumline, they are designed for use on supragingival calculus.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
66.
A patient arrives for a scaling and root planing procedure on his upper right and lower right quadrants. Which of the following people in the dental office may measure periodontal pockets?
a. Dentist
b. Hygienist
c. Assistant
d. Both a and b
Only a dentist and hygienist may measure periodontal probing depths.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
67.
A patient with moderate to severe periodontal disease is seen for their periodontal maintenance appointment. Upon examination, the patient exhibits mobility in localized areas. Moderate mobility would be recorded as a ____.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Two on a scale of mobility describes moderate mobility.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
68.
Periodontal probing depths of 5-7mm are indicative of:
a. Early periodontitis
b. Moderate periodontitis
c. Severe periodontitis
d. Aggressive periodontitis
Moderate periodontitis will have probing depths that are recorded in the 5-7mm range.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
69.
The inflammation of gingival tissue is:
a. Gingivitis
b. Periodontitis
c. Periodontal disease
d. Indicative of bone loss
Gingivitis is the inflammation of gingival tissue.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
70.
To what degree can a mouth be affected with periodontal disease and the disease be considered localized?
a. 35%
b. 30%
c. 45%
d. 50%
30% or less of a mouth being infected is considered a localized periodontal disease infection.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
71.
A 14 year old male presents with large MO decay on #19. There is enough decay evident on the bitewing film to show that the patient will be in need of a crown. What is done in an attempt to save a pulp in cases where a root canal may not be necessary?
a. Pulpectomy
b. Pulpotomy
c. Pulp cap
d. Apicoectomy
Pulp caps may help save the tooth pulp by placing a covering over the exposed or nearly exposed pulp during a restorative procedure.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
72.
What is the reason for performing debridement during a root canal procedure?
a. Smoothing the canal
b. Remove bacteria
c. Improve adaptability of filling material
d. All of the above
e. Both a and c only
All of the above are reasons for performing debridement of a root canal.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
73.
The ADA standard of care recommends the use of a dental dam for endodontic treatments. After placing the dam, the next step required is:
a. Rinsing the dam and clamp with distilled water
b. Disinfecting the dam and clamp with an iodine solution
c. Removing necrotic tissue
d. Local anesthetic delivery
After placing the dam, the next step is disinfecting the dam and clamp with an iodine solution (or a sodium hypochlorite solution may be used as well).
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
74.
What solution is used as a sealer in deciduous teeth that undergo a pulpotomy?
a. Zinc oxide-eugenol
b. Glass ionomer
c. Formocresol
d. None
Formocresol is used to seal deciduous teeth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
75.
What instrument has small barbs along the shaft and is used to remove pulp tissue?
a. Endodontic files
b. Broaches
c. Lentulo spiral
d. Endodontic spoon excavator
Broaches are useful for removing pulp tissue or fragments of paper points within a root canal.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
76.
Which of the following is not an appropriate irrigation solution in endodontic procedures?
a. Alcohol
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Parachlorophenol
d. Sodium hypochlorite
Alcohol is not an appropriate irrigation solution.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
77.
A patient comes into the office for an endodontic procedure. What is the minimum number of radiographs needed?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Four radiographs is the minimum number needed to complete an endodontic procedure.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
78.
Which of the following is not a root canal sealer that is used to seal unfilled voids?
a. Zinc oxide-eugenol
b. Glass ionomer
c. Gutta percha
d. Calcium hydroxide
Gutta percha is not a root canal sealer. It is a root canal filling material.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
79.
What is used to absorb the irrigating solution during an endodontic procedure?
a. Cotton tip applicator
b. Paper points
c. Cotton pellets
d. Air syringe and high evacuation suction
Paper points are used to dry the inside of endodontic canals.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
80.
During a surgical scrub, hands and forearms should be scrubbed with a surgical scrub brush for how long?
a. 60 seconds
b. 3 minutes
c. 7 minutes
d. 10 minutes
Seven minutes is the appropriate length of time to scrub hands and forearms with a surgical scrub brush.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
81.
During the extraction of an impacted tooth, what instrument is used to retract tissue away from the bone?
a. Periosteal elevator
b. Hemostat
c. Forceps
d. Rongeur
Periosteal elevator is the instrument that retracts tissue away from the bone during an extraction.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
82.
Following an surgical scrub, hands should be kept:
a. At waist level
b. Above waist level
c. Below elbows
d. At shoulder height
Above waist level is where hands should be kept following a surgical scrub.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
83.
What flat working instrument used for extractions has large cutting grooves?
a. Rongeur
b. Surgical curette
c. Surgical chisel
d. Bone file
Bone files are flat working instruments with large cutting blades and are used to smooth the surface of alveolar bone.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
84.
Which of the following is not a surgical procedure commonly performed in general dental practices?
a. Alveoloplasty
b. Forceps extraction
c. Multiple extractions
d. Extraction of impacted 3rd molar
Extraction of impacted 3rd molar is not a common procedure in general dental practices.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
85.
Forceps are held using the:
a. Modified pen grasp
b. Fulcrum technique
c. Palm grasp
d. Thumb grasp
Palm grasp is the correct grasp to use when holding forceps
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
86.
A dry socket occurs when:
a. An open wound heals from the inside first
b. A blood clot fails to form properly
c. Granulation tissue is replaced by bone
d. A blood clot forms and is replaced with granulation tissue
A blood clot fails to form properly
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
87.
Which of the following materials is not an absorbable suture material?
a. Chromic cagut
b. Plain cagut
c. Polyester fiber
d. Polydioxanone
Polyester fiber is not an absorbable suture material, it is non-absorbable material.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
88.
What describes the reshaping of bone between adjacent teeth that have been extracted?
a. Alveoloplasty
b. Surgical extraction
c. Complex extraction
d. Impaction
Alveoloplasty is when the bone is recontoured and smoothed in the alveolar ridge when adjacent teeth have been extracted.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
89.
Surgical instruments are all considered to be:
a. Non critical
b. Semi critical
c. Critical
d. Operative
Surgical instruments are all considered to be critical and all must be sterilized after use.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
90.
A tooth that has come out completely due to trauma or injury is said to be:
a. Extracted
b. Avulsed
c. Expectorated
d. Traumatized
Avulsed is the term used when a tooth completely comes out of the socket in one piece.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
91.
Which of the following is not a type of stainless steel crown?
a. Festoon
b. Pretrimmed
c. Contoured
d. Precontoured
Festoon means to be trimmed, but it is not the terminology used to describe a type of stainless steel crown.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
92.
When the coronal portion of a dental pulp is removed from a primary tooth, the procedure is called:
a. Indirect pulp cap
b. Pulp cap
c. Pulpectomy
d. Pulpotomy
Pulpotomy removes the infected area of the pulp but leaves healthy pulp tissue within the primary tooth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
93.
Preventive orthodontics provided by a pediatric dentist include which of the following?
a. Space maintainers
b. Appliances to correct habits such as thumb sucking
c. Extracting primary teeth that have been retained
d. All of the above
All of the above are examples of preventive orthodontics offered in a pediatric dental environment.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
94.
Which of the following is unique to pediatric dental offices?
a. Private operatories
b. Small x-ray tubehead equipment
c. Open treatment bay
d. Specialized instruments
Open treatment bays are unique to pediatric dental offices, helping children to feel less shut in than a small operatory.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
95.
Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until:
a. 2 years of age
b. They are able to expectorate
c. Eruption of the first permanent tooth
d. 5 years of age
Children should use a fluoride-free dentrifice until they are able to expectorate. This prevents swallowing of fluoride.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
96.
The emphasis of pediatric dentistry is on all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Early detection of dental disease
b. Prevention of dental disease
c. Developmental guidance
d. Treatment of developing permanent teeth
Treatment of developing permanent teeth is not an emphasis of pediatric dentistry.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
97.
A 5 year old male arrives for an MO composite on #K. What matrix band is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for use on primary molars?
a. Steel
b. Clear plastic
c. T-band
d. Spot-welded
T-band matrixes are copper t-shaped matrix bands commonly used on primary molars.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
98.
What type of crown is primarily used in pediatric dentistry for badly decayed teeth?
a. Stainless steel
b. PFM
c. Porcelain
d. Open face
Stainless steel crowns are used primarily in pediatric dentistry.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
99.
Which of the following are the most frequently injured primary teeth?
a. Maxillary central incisors
b. Mandibular central incisors
c. Maxillary central and lateral incisors
d. Mandibular central and lateral incisors
Maxillary central incisors are the most frequently injured primary teeth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
100.
What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
Class II bites show the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting mesial to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
101.
What type of bite shows the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
Class III bites show the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar meeting distal to the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
102.
What are thin wires used around brackets that hold arch wires in place?
a. Elastomeric ties
b. Elastic chain ties
c. Continuous wire ties
d. Wire ligatures
Wire ligatures are the thin wires that twist around brackets to hold an arch wire in place.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
103.
What helps to bring about movement between maxillary and mandibular arches?
a. Elastics
b. Ligatures
c. Headgear
d. Facebow
Elastics help bring about movement between maxillary and mandibular arches.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
104.
A dentist needs to guide an arch wire into place. What orthodontic instrument should be used?
a. Hemostat
b. Band remover
c. Weingart utility pliers
d. Pin and ligature cutter
Weingart utility pliers are used to guide arch wire into place
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
105.
Which of the following directions can orthodontic treatment move a tooth?
a. Facially
b. Apically
c. Occlusally
d. All of the above
All of the above are directions that orthodontic therapy can move a tooth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
106.
Which of the following is not an ingredient in amalgam fillings?
a. Mercury
b. Silver
c. Tin
d. Steel
Steel is not an ingredient in amalgam fillings.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
107.
Which of the following is not a common type of cavity liner?
a. Dentin sealer
b. Potassium fluoride
c. Calcium hydroxide
d. Cavity varnish
Potassium fluoride is not a common type of cavity liner
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
108.
A 35 year old female is having an incisal chip on #25 repaired. What is applied to the surface of a tooth to prepare for the use of bonding material?
a. Sealer
b. Varnish
c. Etch
d. Liner
Etch is applied to the tooth in order to prepare it for retention and bonding of material.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
109.
What type of cement is used for permanently cementing a cast to a tooth?
a. Base
b. Type I zink oxide-eugenol
c. Temporary cement
d. Luting agent
Luting agent is- a permanent cement which is used in a very thin coat to permanently cement casting to a tooth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
110.
Bonding is greatly improved when etch is used on the surface of dentin to remove:
a. The smear layer
b. Cementum
c. Enamel
d. Biofilm
The smear layer is a thin layer of debris that remains after a tooth is prepared for treatment.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
111.
What cement material is used for most temporary restorations?
a. Resin
b. IRM
c. Glass ionomer
d. Temporary cement
IRM, or intermediate restorative material, is the most common cement used for temporary restorations.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
112.
Which cement releases fluoride at a slow rate, inhibiting decay?
a. IRM
b. Glass ionomer
c. Zink oxide-eugenol
d. Zinc phosphate
Glass ionomer cements release a slow flow of fluoride into the tooth, reducing risk of recurrent decay.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
113.
Which of the following is the only material listed that is appropriate to mix on a paper mixing pad?
a. Zinc oxide-eugenol
b. Amalgam filling material
c. Zinc phosphate
d. Calcium hydroxide
Calcium hydroxide is appropriate for mixing on a paper pad. Amalgam must be mixed in a machine while the other 2 materials listed must be mixed on a glass slab.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
114.
A ______ and ______ are needed when creating a proper contour of a new restoration.
a. Tofflemire, wedge
b. Tofflemire, matrix
c. Matrix, wedge
d. Matrix, retainer
Matrix, wedge - Both necessary in order to properly create an anatomical contour for new restorations
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
115.
When preparing a matrix band, which edge has a shorter circumference?
a. Occlusal
b. Gingival
c. Incisal
d. Lingual
Gingival edges are shorter than the occlusal edges, because the neck of the tooth is narrower than the occlusal crown portion.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
116.
Which of the following is NOT true in regards to home whitening treatments?
a. Corrects stains in restorative materials
b. For aesthetic purposes only
c. Made of hydrogen peroxide, or carbamide peroxide
d. Contains a thickening agent
Whiteners will remove some surface stains from restorative materials but will not remove stains or color from in a restorative material. Whiteners will only affect the tooth structure, not restorative materials.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
117.
Wedges are not needed for Class ____ matrix systems.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Wedges are only used for class II, III and IV matrix systems.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
118.
What thin, tooth-colored restorative material is bonded directly to the tooth in order to improve the appearance?
a. Composite
b. Bonding
c. Veneer
d. Varnish
Veneer is the tooth colored material that is bonded to a tooth in order to improve the overall appearance.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
119.
Which of the following is used for anterior composite fillings?
a. Steel matrix band
b. Universal retainer
c. Tofflemire
d. Clear plastic matrix band
Clear plastic matrix are used for composite fillings on anterior teeth.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
120.
What is used along with bonding material when a tooth is badly broken down?
a. Liner
b. Base
c. Retentive pin
d. Build up
A retentive pin helps along with bonding material to restore teeth that are badly broken down.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
121.
Which of the following would NOT be needed for a varnish application set-up?
a. Microbrush or applicator
b. Curing light
c. Varnish
d. Cotton pellets
Curing lights are not needed for the application of a varnish.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
122.
Etching requires approximately how long in order to thoroughly etch the tooth structure?
a. 5-10 seconds
b. 10-15 seconds
c. 15-30 seconds
d. 45-60 seconds
15-30 seconds is the typical time required by etch manufacturers for the material to thoroughly etch the tooth surface.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
123.
Which of the following is not a type of impression?
a. Preliminary
b. Occlusal registration
c. Temporary
d. Final
Temporary is not a type of impression. There are only 3 types of impressions and those are preliminary, final and occlusal registration
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
124.
What type of material is an irreversible hydrocolloid that is the material of choice for taking a preliminary impression?
a. Condensation silicone
b. Alginate
c. Plaster
d. Polysulfide
Alginate is a gelatinous material that is ideal for preliminary impressions.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
125.
What material is used to create diagnostic casts when strength and accuracy of the model are not critical?
a. Model plaster
b. Dental stone
c. Alginate
d. Quick set
Model plaster - this is used because it is easy to trim and handle
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
126.
Which of the following is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products?
a. Temperature of water
b. Exposure to light
c. Amount of water used
d. Humidity
Exposure to light is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products. However, the others listed do affect it.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
127.
What is predominately used to show the occlusion relationship between arches?
a. Alginate
b. Polether
c. Wax bite registration
d. Addition silicone
Wax bite registration is a soft, pliable material that allows the occlusion surfaces of teeth to easily be recorded.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
128.
A mandibular alginate impression usually requires how many scoops of alginate powder?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Two scoops of alginate powder are usually needed for a mandibular impression.
Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.
129.
When taking a final impression of a tooth, the _________ form of viscosity is chosen for application directly into the sulcus of the prepared tooth.
a. Light body
b. Regular body