2024 Edition

Dental Assistant Practice Exam

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Dental assisting certification is for those who have met their state dental assisting educational requirements and passed an exam. This certification is required by 29 states and recognized by 38 states including the District of Columbia. The actual exam consists of three sections - General Chairside Assistance, Infection Control and Dental Radiography - with a total of 255 multiple-choice questions. Total exam time is limited to three hours and fifteen minutes.

For complete study, check out our 750 question Practice Exam Kit for the Certified Dental Assistant Exam.

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General Chairside Assistance

1.	A permanent dentition consists of how many teeth?
		a. 28
		b. 30
		c. 32
		d. 26
32 teeth make up a permanent dentition. This includes 4 third molars or wisdom teeth. There are 20 baby teeth in primary dentition. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

2.	Which teeth are sometimes called the "eye" teeth?
		a. Premolars
		b. Canines
		c. Incisors
		d. Bicuspids
Canine teeth are sometimes called "eye teeth." They are also called cuspids. Canine teeth are designed for cutting and tearing food. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

3.	Which proximal surface of a tooth is closest toward the midline of the body?
		a. Occlusal
		b. Facial
		c. Incisal
		d. Mesial
Mesial is the closest proximal tooth surface toward the midline of the body. Occlusal, facial, and incisal are not proximal surfaces. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

4.	A permanent dentition consists of how many premolars?
		a. 4
		b. 8
		c. 12
		d. None
Eight premolars exist in a permanent dentition. There are two premolars in each of the four quadrants of the mouth. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

5.	When a mouth is divided into fourths, the parts are referred to as:
		a. Quadrant
		b. Arch
		c. Sextant
		d. Posterior/Anterior
The mouth is divided into four quadrants. Quadrants are the four parts when a mouth is divided into four sections: upper right, lower right, upper left and lower left. There are two arches. They are maxillary (upper) and mandibular (lower). Posterior teeth are located in the back of the mouth while anterior teeth are located in the front of the mouth. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

6.	What is the vertical movement of a tooth into its functional position in the mouth called?
		a. Exfoliation
		b. Eruption
		c. Resorption
		d. Shedding
Exfoliation, resorption, and shedding are terms associated with the loss of primary teeth. Once the root of a primary tooth has resorbed, the tooth will become loose and fall out. This process is called exfoliation or shedding. The permanent tooth will then be able to erupt into the oral cavity. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

7.	The labial surface is the facial tooth surface closest to which area?
		a. Lips
		b. Cheek
		c. Tongue
		d. Palate
Labial and buccal are both facial surfaces. A labial surface is the facial surface closest to the lips. The buccal surface is the facial surface closest to the inner cheek. The labial surface does not contact the tongue or palate. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

8.	The temporomandibular joint causes movement in which dental arch?
		a. Mandibular
		b. Maxillary
		c. Quadrant
		d. Sextant
There are two dental arches. The maxillary or upper arch is immovable because it is attached to the skull. The TMJ allows the mandibular or lower arch to move up and down, forwards and backwards, and from side to side. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

9.	Using the Universal System of tooth designation, what tooth is #12?
		a. Maxillary right canine
		b. Maxillary left first premolar
		c. Maxillary left canine
		d. Maxillary right first premolar
Tooth #12 is the maxillary left first premolar. Tooth #12 is the first premolar or bicuspid to erupt in the maxillary left arch according to the Universal System of tooth designation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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10.	Using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording, which tooth is #25?
		a. Mandibular right central incisor
		b. Maxillary left second premolar
		c. Mandibular left central incisor
		d. Maxillary right second premolar
Maxillary left second premolar is #25 when using the ISO system of tooth recording. Tooth #25 is the second premolar or bicuspid to erupt in the maxillary left arch using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording. This system is not frequently used in the United States. The most common tooth numbering system used in the United States is the Universal Numbering System. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

11.	Dental assistants are not permitted to use which dental tool?
		a. X-Ray sensor
		b. Alginate
		c. Model Trimmer
		d. Cavitron
Dental assistants are permitted to take dental radiographs as well as impressions. They may also pour impressions and trim models. Only licensed dentists and licensed dental hygienists are permitted to scale teeth with a cavitron. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

12.	If you enter an operatory and see sodium hypochlorite, files, a rubber dam, and gutta percha sitting on a tray, which procedure will you most likely be assisting on?
		a. Amalgam
		b. Composite
		c. Root Canal Therapy
		d. Crown Prep
Sodium hypochlorite and files are used to clean the canals of a tooth during root canal therapy. Gutta percha is used to fill the canals. Rubber dams may be used during many different dental procedures, but must be used during root canal therapy appointments. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

13.	Which type of restoration would not require the use of a matrix band or celluloid matrix strip?
		a. Class I
		b. Class II
		c. Class III
		d. Class IV
Class II, Class III, and Class IV restorations all involve interproximal contact areas and require a matrix band or celluloid matrix strip to restore the missing wall. Class I restorations involve a single surface. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

14.	Why are intermediate restorations sometimes used in dentistry?
		a. Financial reasons
		b. To determine the health of a tooth
		c. While waiting for a permanent restoration
		d. All of the above
Intermediate or temporary restorations may be placed when a patient needs time to save for a permanent restoration or is waiting for their insurance benefits to renew. Intermediate restorations may be used temporarily to determine if a tooth needs more extensive treatment. They may also be used while waiting for a permanent restoration to be fabricated in a dental lab. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

15.	Which tooth whitening option provides the fastest results?
		a. In-office whitening
		b. Trays with bleaching gel
		c. Brush-on whitening
		d. Whitening Strips
In-office whitening may take as little as one hour. Teeth treated in this way may whiten up to 5 shades. Trays with bleaching gel, brush-on whitening, and whitening strips are all less expensive at-home treatments. These methods require several days of treatment to achieve the same results as in-office whitening. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

16.	The T-Band matrix system is designed to be used on which teeth?
		a. Primary pre-molar
		b. Primary molar
		c. Permanent pre-molar
		d. Permanent molar
The universal matrix and retainer are used for restorations on permanent molars and pre-molars. This system does not work as well on primary molars due to their shape and small size. T-bands and spot-welded bands fit primary molars. There are no pre-molars in the primary dentition. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

17.	During periodontal probing, which sulcus measurement is considered normal?
		a. 3mm
		b. 4mm
		c. 5mm
		d. 6mm
A healthy sulcus measurement is 3mm or less. Deeper pockets indicate the loss of epithelial attachment, bone, and indicate the presence of periodontal disease. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Infection Control

18.	Which of the following is NOT a mode of disease transmission?
		a. Bloodborne
		b. Airborne
		c. Indirect
		d. Sexually Transmitted
Sexually transmitted is not a mode of disease transmission. It is a type of transmitted disease. Diseases may be transmitted through body fluids, the air, or indirectly from cross contamination. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

19.	Which Hepatitis virus should healthcare personnel be immunized against?
		a. Hep A
		b. Hep B
		c. Hep C
		d. All of the above
Hep B immunization is an effective vaccine that healthcare workers should be given to prevent the risk of occupational exposure. OSHA requirements state that employers must offer the Hepatitis B vaccination at no cost to their employees who are at risk of exposure. Hepatitis A is the least serious type of Hepatitis. It is transmitted orally from objects that are contaminated with the fecal matter of an infected person. Vaccines for Hepatitis C are currently under development. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

20.	Which of the following diseases can be spread through contaminated water supplies?
		a. Hepatitis C
		b. Tuberculosis
		c. Legionnaire's Disease
		d. Primary Herpes
Legionnaire's Disease can be spread through aerosols as well as aspirating contaminated water. It is not spread from person to person like Hepatitis C, Tuberculosis, and Primary Herpes. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

21.	A patient experiences an infection where symptoms appear quickly and are severe. What type of infection is this?
		a. Acute
		b. Chronic
		c. Latent
		d. Opportunistic
Acute infections are often very quick to appear and have severe symptoms. Unlike chronic and latent infections, acute infections normally have a short duration. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

22.	A patient presents with symptoms of an oral yeast infection. All of the following can cause this infection, except:
		a. Xerostomia
		b. Weakened immune system
		c. Diabetes
		d. Measles
Oral candidiasis is a yeast infection of the mouth, sometimes called “thrush.” It is caused by the candida fungus. A weakened immune system, diabetes, xerostomia, or antibiotic use may cause this naturally occurring oral fungus to be become overgrown resulting in an infection. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

23.	What is a microorganism called that is capable of causing diseases?
		a. Bacteria
		b. Virus
		c. Syndrome
		d. Pathogen
Pathogens are organisms that are capable of causing disease conditions. Bacteria and viruses can be pathogenic but are not always. A syndrome is a group of conditions that occur together. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

24.	Which disease is an example of one caused by a spore?
		a. Tetanus
		b. HIV
		c. Hep B
		d. None of the above
Tetanus, also called "lock jaw" is a disease that is caused by spore bacteria. Hepatitis B and HIV are caused by viruses. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

25.	Sending contaminated impressions to a dental lab and wearing contaminated clothing outside of the dental office can cause which type of disease transmission?
		a. Patient to patient
		b. Patient to dental team
		c. Community to dental office
		d. Dental office to community
Impressions, models, and all lab cases must be disinfected before they are sent to dental labs to prevent disease transmission. Microorganisms may also be transmitted to the community through contaminated clothing and hair. Uniforms worn during patient treatment should not be worn outside of the dental office. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

26.	The assumption that all blood and body fluids are to be treated as if known to be infected is called?
		a. OSHA compliance
		b. CDC compliance
		c. Exposure control plan
		d. Universal/Standard precautions
A patient may not know that they have an infectious disease or may not inform the dental team that they have a disease. For this reason, Universal/Standard precautions must be followed for all patients. The CDC issues evidence-based recommendations for health-related matters. OSHA is a regulatory agency that issues standards designed to protect the health of employees. The exposure control plan describes how the dental office complies with OSHA's Blood-Borne Pathogens Standard. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

27.	Dental Assistants fall under which occupational exposure category?
		a. I
		b. II
		c. III
		d. IV
There are three occupational exposure categories. Dental personnel who are regularly exposed to blood and saliva fall under category I. Those who are occasionally exposed are in category II. Category III represents those who are never exposed to blood or saliva. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

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28.	Where must needles, scalpel blades and orthodontic wires be disposed?
		a. Glass jar
		b. Contaminated waste
		c. Dumpster
		d. Sharps container
All disposable sharps and broken glass must be disposed of in puncture-resistant, leak proof, closable, biohazard labeled sharps containers. They must be located as close as possible to the area of immediate disposal. Many dental offices have a sharps container in each operatory and in the central sterilization area. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

29.	Masks, eyewear with front and side protection, face shields and gloves are examples of what?
		a. PPE
		b. HVE
		c. CDC
		d. OSHA
OSHA's Blood-Borne Pathogen Standard requires employers to provide at no charge to employees personal protective equipment (PPE) which includes surgical masks, protective clothing, disposable gloves, utility gloves and protective eyewear. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

30.	Which type of gloves should be worn during an implant placement procedure?
		a. Examination gloves
		b. Overgloves
		c. Utility gloves
		d. Sterile surgical gloves.
Sterile surgical gloves are worn during invasive procedures such as periodontal and oral surgery. Examination gloves are the most frequently worn gloves during routine patient treatment. Overgloves may be worn over contaminated exam gloves to prevent cross contamination. Utility gloves are worn while processing contaminated instruments. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

31.	Scrap amalgam falls under which classification of waste?
		a. General waste
		b. Hazardous waste
		c. Contaminated waste
		d. Infectious waste
Hazardous waste poses a danger to humans or the environment. Mercury and other toxic chemicals fall under this category. State and local regulations must be followed when disposing of hazardous waste. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

32.	Paper towels falls under which classification of waste?
		a. General waste
		b. Hazardous waste
		c. Contaminated waste
		d. Infectious waste
Items that do not come in contact with blood or saliva like mixing pads, empty containers and paper towels are considered general waste and may be disposed of in covered plastic or metal containers. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

33.	The portal of entry for air-borne pathogens does NOT include which area?
		a. Mouth
		b. Nose
		c. Skin
		d. Mucous membranes
Air-borne pathogens cannot penetrate skin. Blood-borne pathogens may enter the body through a break in the skin, or through the mucous membranes of the nose and mouth. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

34.	Which type of infection presents symptoms that come and go?
		a. Chronic
		b. Acute
		c. Latent
		d. Opportunistic
Latent infections such as cold sores lay dormant until certain conditions such as an illness or stress cause an outbreak. Chronic infections are present for a long duration. Acute infections may be severe but are of short duration. Opportunistic infections occur in people with compromised resistance, such as patients with diabetes, autoimmune disease or the elderly. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Dental Radiography

35.	What type of film allows the entire dentition to be viewed on a single film?
		a. Occlusal
		b. Cephelometric
		c. Panoramic
		d. All of the above
Panoramic films allow the entire dentition to be viewed on a single, large film. Occlusal and Cephalometric radiographs only show a section of the dentition. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

36.	Which of the following is not a main component of a panoramic x-ray unit?
		a. Tubehead
		b. Head positioner
		c. Panoramic film
		d. Exposure controls
Panoramic film is not a major component of a panoramic x-ray unit. The main components are the tubehead, head positioner and exposure controls. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

37.	What type of device does digital radiography use to record images taken of the patient's teeth?
		a. Standard x-ray film, with scanner
		b. Electronic sensor
		c. MRI sensor
		d. All of the above
Electronic sensors are used in lieu of standard x-ray films when recording images of a patient's teeth. While standard films can have their image scanned into an electronic program, they are not by definition, digital x-rays. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

38.	Which of the following inflicts the most radiation on a patient?
		a. FMX
		b. Panoramic
		c. Bitewing series
		d. PA
FMX series inflict more radiation on a patient because they require multiple exposures for 18 to 20 films. A PA is one film. A bitewing series consists of 2 to 4 films. A panoramic image is not intraoral. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

39.	What step helps prevent a large radiolucent area near the palate as seen on panoramic x-rays?
		a. Placing the patient's midsagittal plane perpendicular to the floor
		b. Having the patient stand as straight as possible
		c. Having the patient place their tongue in the roof of their mouth
		d. Having the patient smile with their lips apart
Having the patient place their tongue on the roof of their mouth during a panoramic x-ray prevents the appearance of a large radiolucent area near the palate on the processed x-ray. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

40.	Why does digital radiography require less radiation than traditional x-rays?
		a. The x-ray beams are more powerful.
		b. It uses lower wave-length radiation.
		c. Sensors are more sensitive.
		d. All of the above
Sensors are more sensitive with digital radiography than traditional x-ray films, allowing the exposure time to be less, reducing radiation. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

41.	Refer to the radiograph to answer the next three quesitons. This is an example of what type of dental radiograph?
		a. Bitewing
		b. Intraoral
		c. Periapical
		d. Panoramic
Bitewings and periapical images show a small section of the dentition. Panoramic images display the entire dentition. Panoramic radiographs are extraoral images, not intraoral. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

42.	How many root canal treated teeth are present on the mandibular arch?
		a. 1
		b. 2
		c. 3
		d. 4
Tooth #18 and tooth #20 have been treated with root canal therapy. The material used to fill the canals after the nerves were removed can be seen on the radiograph as white lines going down the roots of the teeth. There are also several root canal treated teeth on the maxillary arch. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

43.	This patient has a bridge on the lower left quadrant. How many pontics does this bridge contain?
		a. 1
		b. 3
		c. 5
		d. 7
A pontic is the artificial tooth that replaces a natural tooth that has been lost. Every bridge will have a minimum of 1 pontic. The pontic on this bridge is replacing tooth #19. The bridge is supported by two abutments (#18 and #20) that support and retain the bridge. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

44.	Digital x-ray sensors:
		a. Cannot be sterilized
		b. Are sealed and waterproofed
		c. Must be covered with a barrier
		d. All of the above
Intraoral sensors are waterproofed by the manufacturer, but because they cannot be sterilized, they must have a disposable barrier placed on them prior to use with each patient. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

45.	Which type of dental radiograph shows 3D images?
		a. CBCT
		b. Bitewing
		c. Occlusal Film
		d. Panoramic
Bitewings, panoramic, periapical, and occlusal radiographs display 2D images. Cone beam Computed Tomography (CBCT) displays the head and neck in 3 dimensions. This is very helpful when planning implant placement, 3rd molar extractions, and other surgeries. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

46.	What size film or sensor is recommended for pediatric patients with primary dentition?
		a. 3
		b. 2
		c. 1
		d. 0
Size 0 is the smallest film/sensor size and is recommended for small mouths. Children with mixed dentition may be able to tolerate size 1 or 2. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

47.	Which instrument was designed for taking radiographs of teeth with endodontic instruments inside of them?
		a. Rinn
		b. Hemostat
		c. EndoRay
		d. Bite Block
Although several tools may be used as aids in capturing radiographic images, the EndoRay holder was specifically designed for endodontic procedures. Filling materials and instruments like files that protrude from the tooth do not have to be removed when using this tool. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

48.	Which type of radiation initially comes from the x-ray tube?
		a. Primary radiation
		b. Secondary radiation
		c. Solar radiation
		d. Scatter radiation
The initial radiation that comes from an x-ray tube is primary radiation. Once contact is made with skin it becomes secondary radiation. Scatter radiation is a form of secondary radiation, and is dangerous to the patient and the operator. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

49.	A lead apron with a thyroid collar will protect a patient from what type of radiation?
		a. Thermal
		b. Solar
		c. Primary
		d. Scatter
The thyroid gland is highly sensitive to scatter radiation. A lead apron with a thyroid collar must be used on all patients during radiographic procedures. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

50.	Why should fingers not be used to hold x-ray film or sensors while taking radiographs?
		a. The fingers are exposed to radiation.
		b. The fingers may get oils on the film.
		c. The image may be overlapped.
		d. The image may not be of diagnostic quality.
Neither the patient or operator should hold an x-ray film or sensor while taking dental radiographs. This will unnecessarily expose their fingers and hand to dangerous radiation. Many tools are available to safely hold sensors and film. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer.

Dental Assistant Tests

Quality starts with who wrote the material.

Our practice exam writer

Tiffany Neal, CDA (DANB), EFDA

, has been a practicing dental assistant for close to 20 years. She has taught dental assisting at Everest College in Colorado.

Sharon Boyd, RDH

, is a registered dental hygienist and dental educator. As a professional dental writer, she has worked for several continuing education programs and is the head continuing education curriculum writer for an American Dental Association CERP provider.

Abby Altergott, RDH

, is a registered dental hygienist who has worked in the specialties of oral surgery, periodontics and orthodontics for eight years. She worked as a dental assistant for three years.

Our practice exam follows the CDA blueprint component exam areas: GC, RHS & ICE:

1. General Chairside Assisting (GC)

GC Exam Blueprint:

Evaluation
Patient Managemnt and Administration
Chairside Dentistry
Dental Materials

GC Exam Summary:

95 multiple-choice questions
75 minutes testing time

2. Radiation Health and Safety (RHS)

RHS Exam Blueprint:

Purpose and Technique
Radiation Safety
Infection Control

RHS Exam Summary:

80 multiple-choice questions
1 hour testing time

3. Infection Control (ICE)

ICE Exam Blueprint:

Prevent of Disease Transmission
Prevention of Cross-contamination
Process of Instruments and Devices
Occupational Safety and Admin Protocols

ICE Exam Summary:

80 multiple-choice questions
1 hour testing time

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