2026 Edition

Dental Assistant Practice Exam

Take this free Dental Assistant Practice Exam to study for your dental assistant certification exam. It covers subjects tested by the DANB. Our DANB test prep is written by certified instructors in dental assisting. For comprehensive study, use our 750 question Dental Assistant Practice Exam.

If you are interested in becoming a dental hygienist, see our free Dental Hygienist Practice Exam.

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General Chairside Assistance

1 A permanent dentition consists of how many teeth?

a. 28

b. 30

c. 32

d. 26

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

32 teeth make up a permanent dentition. This includes 4 third molars or wisdom teeth. There are 20 baby teeth in primary dentition.

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2 Which teeth are sometimes called the "eye" teeth?

a. Premolars

b. Canines

c. Incisors

d. Bicuspids

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Canine teeth are sometimes called "eye teeth." They are also called cuspids. Canine teeth are designed for cutting and tearing food.

3 Which proximal surface of a tooth is closest toward the midline of the body?

a. Occlusal

b. Facial

c. Incisal

d. Mesial

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Mesial is the closest proximal tooth surface toward the midline of the body. Occlusal, facial, and incisal are not proximal surfaces.

4 A permanent dentition consists of how many premolars?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 12

d. None

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Eight premolars exist in a permanent dentition. There are two premolars in each of the four quadrants of the mouth.

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5 When a mouth is divided into fourths, the parts are referred to as:

a. Quadrant

b. Arch

c. Sextant

d. Posterior/Anterior

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

The mouth is divided into four quadrants. Quadrants are the four parts when a mouth is divided into four sections: upper right, lower right, upper left and lower left. There are two arches. They are maxillary (upper) and mandibular (lower). Posterior teeth are located in the back of the mouth while anterior teeth are located in the front of the mouth.

6 What is the vertical movement of a tooth into its functional position in the mouth called?

a. Exfoliation

b. Eruption

c. Resorption

d. Shedding

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Exfoliation, resorption, and shedding are terms associated with the loss of primary teeth. Once the root of a primary tooth has resorbed, the tooth will become loose and fall out. This process is called exfoliation or shedding. The permanent tooth will then be able to erupt into the oral cavity.

7 The labial surface is the facial tooth surface closest to which area?

a. Lips

b. Cheek

c. Tongue

d. Palate

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Labial and buccal are both facial surfaces. A labial surface is the facial surface closest to the lips. The buccal surface is the facial surface closest to the inner cheek. The labial surface does not contact the tongue or palate.

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8 The temporomandibular joint causes movement in which dental arch?

a. Mandibular

b. Maxillary

c. Quadrant

d. Sextant

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

There are two dental arches. The maxillary or upper arch is immovable because it is attached to the skull. The TMJ allows the mandibular or lower arch to move up and down, forwards and backwards, and from side to side.

9 Using the Universal System of tooth designation, what tooth is #12?

a. Maxillary right canine

b. Maxillary left first premolar

c. Maxillary left canine

d. Maxillary right first premolar

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Tooth #12 is the maxillary left first premolar. Tooth #12 is the first premolar or bicuspid to erupt in the maxillary left arch according to the Universal System of tooth designation.

10 Using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording, which tooth is #25?

a. Mandibular right central incisor

b. Maxillary left second premolar

c. Mandibular left central incisor

d. Maxillary right second premolar

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Maxillary left second premolar is #25 when using the ISO system of tooth recording. Tooth #25 is the second premolar or bicuspid to erupt in the maxillary left arch using the International Standards Organization system of tooth recording. This system is not frequently used in the United States. The most common tooth numbering system used in the United States is the Universal Numbering System.

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11 Dental assistants are not permitted to use which dental tool?

a. X-Ray sensor

b. Alginate

c. Model Trimmer

d. Cavitron

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Dental assistants are permitted to take dental radiographs as well as impressions. They may also pour impressions and trim models. Only licensed dentists and licensed dental hygienists are permitted to scale teeth with a cavitron.

12 If you enter an operatory and see sodium hypochlorite, files, a rubber dam, and gutta percha sitting on a tray, which procedure will you most likely be assisting on?

a. Amalgam

b. Composite

c. Root Canal Therapy

d. Crown Prep

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Sodium hypochlorite and files are used to clean the canals of a tooth during root canal therapy. Gutta percha is used to fill the canals. Rubber dams may be used during many different dental procedures, but must be used during root canal therapy appointments.

13 Which type of restoration would not require the use of a matrix band or celluloid matrix strip?

a. Class I

b. Class II

c. Class III

d. Class IV

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Class II, Class III, and Class IV restorations all involve interproximal contact areas and require a matrix band or celluloid matrix strip to restore the missing wall. Class I restorations involve a single surface.

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14 Why are intermediate restorations sometimes used in dentistry?

a. Financial reasons

b. To determine the health of a tooth

c. While waiting for a permanent restoration

d. All of the above

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Intermediate or temporary restorations may be placed when a patient needs time to save for a permanent restoration or is waiting for their insurance benefits to renew. Intermediate restorations may be used temporarily to determine if a tooth needs more extensive treatment. They may also be used while waiting for a permanent restoration to be fabricated in a dental lab.

15 Which tooth whitening option provides the fastest results?

a. In-office whitening

b. Trays with bleaching gel

c. Brush-on whitening

d. Whitening Strips

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

In-office whitening may take as little as one hour. Teeth treated in this way may whiten up to 5 shades. Trays with bleaching gel, brush-on whitening, and whitening strips are all less expensive at-home treatments. These methods require several days of treatment to achieve the same results as in-office whitening.

16 The T-Band matrix system is designed to be used on which teeth?

a. Primary pre-molar

b. Primary molar

c. Permanent pre-molar

d. Permanent molar

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

The universal matrix and retainer are used for restorations on permanent molars and pre-molars. This system does not work as well on primary molars due to their shape and small size. T-bands and spot-welded bands fit primary molars. There are no pre-molars in the primary dentition.

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17 During periodontal probing, which sulcus measurement is considered normal?

a. 3mm

b. 4mm

c. 5mm

d. 6mm

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

A healthy sulcus measurement is 3mm or less. Deeper pockets indicate the loss of epithelial attachment, bone, and indicate the presence of periodontal disease.

Infection Control

18 Which of the following is NOT a mode of disease transmission?

a. Bloodborne

b. Airborne

c. Indirect

d. Sexually Transmitted

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Sexually transmitted is not a mode of disease transmission. It is a type of transmitted disease. Diseases may be transmitted through body fluids, the air, or indirectly from cross contamination.

19 Which Hepatitis virus should healthcare personnel be immunized against?

a. Hep A

b. Hep B

c. Hep C

d. All of the above

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Hep B immunization is an effective vaccine that healthcare workers should be given to prevent the risk of occupational exposure. OSHA requirements state that employers must offer the Hepatitis B vaccination at no cost to their employees who are at risk of exposure. Hepatitis A is the least serious type of Hepatitis. It is transmitted orally from objects that are contaminated with the fecal matter of an infected person. Vaccines for Hepatitis C are currently under development.

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20 Which of the following diseases can be spread through contaminated water supplies?

a. Hepatitis C

b. Tuberculosis

c. Legionnaire's Disease

d. Primary Herpes

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Legionnaire's Disease can be spread through aerosols as well as aspirating contaminated water. It is not spread from person to person like Hepatitis C, Tuberculosis, and Primary Herpes.

21 A patient experiences an infection where symptoms appear quickly and are severe. What type of infection is this?

a. Acute

b. Chronic

c. Latent

d. Opportunistic

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Acute infections are often very quick to appear and have severe symptoms. Unlike chronic and latent infections, acute infections normally have a short duration.

22 A patient presents with symptoms of an oral yeast infection. All of the following can cause this infection, except:

a. Xerostomia

b. Weakened immune system

c. Diabetes

d. Measles

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Oral candidiasis is a yeast infection of the mouth, sometimes called “thrush.” It is caused by the candida fungus. A weakened immune system, diabetes, xerostomia, or antibiotic use may cause this naturally occurring oral fungus to be become overgrown resulting in an infection.

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23 What is a microorganism called that is capable of causing diseases?

a. Bacteria

b. Virus

c. Syndrome

d. Pathogen

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Pathogens are organisms that are capable of causing disease conditions. Bacteria and viruses can be pathogenic but are not always. A syndrome is a group of conditions that occur together.

24 Which disease is an example of one caused by a spore?

a. Tetanus

b. HIV

c. Hep B

d. None of the above

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Tetanus, also called "lock jaw" is a disease that is caused by spore bacteria. Hepatitis B and HIV are caused by viruses.

25 Sending contaminated impressions to a dental lab and wearing contaminated clothing outside of the dental office can cause which type of disease transmission?

a. Patient to patient

b. Patient to dental team

c. Community to dental office

d. Dental office to community

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Impressions, models, and all lab cases must be disinfected before they are sent to dental labs to prevent disease transmission. Microorganisms may also be transmitted to the community through contaminated clothing and hair. Uniforms worn during patient treatment should not be worn outside of the dental office.

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26 The assumption that all blood and body fluids are to be treated as if known to be infected is called?

a. OSHA compliance

b. CDC compliance

c. Exposure control plan

d. Universal/Standard precautions

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

A patient may not know that they have an infectious disease or may not inform the dental team that they have a disease. For this reason, Universal/Standard precautions must be followed for all patients. The CDC issues evidence-based recommendations for health-related matters. OSHA is a regulatory agency that issues standards designed to protect the health of employees. The exposure control plan describes how the dental office complies with OSHA's Blood-Borne Pathogens Standard.

27 Dental Assistants fall under which occupational exposure category?

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

There are three occupational exposure categories. Dental personnel who are regularly exposed to blood and saliva fall under category I. Those who are occasionally exposed are in category II. Category III represents those who are never exposed to blood or saliva.

28 Where must needles, scalpel blades and orthodontic wires be disposed?

a. Glass jar

b. Contaminated waste

c. Dumpster

d. Sharps container

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

All disposable sharps and broken glass must be disposed of in puncture-resistant, leak proof, closable, biohazard labeled sharps containers. They must be located as close as possible to the area of immediate disposal. Many dental offices have a sharps container in each operatory and in the central sterilization area.

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29 Masks, eyewear with front and side protection, face shields and gloves are examples of what?

a. PPE

b. HVE

c. CDC

d. OSHA

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

OSHA's Blood-Borne Pathogen Standard requires employers to provide at no charge to employees personal protective equipment (PPE) which includes surgical masks, protective clothing, disposable gloves, utility gloves and protective eyewear.

30 Which type of gloves should be worn during an implant placement procedure?

a. Examination gloves

b. Overgloves

c. Utility gloves

d. Sterile surgical gloves.

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Sterile surgical gloves are worn during invasive procedures such as periodontal and oral surgery. Examination gloves are the most frequently worn gloves during routine patient treatment. Overgloves may be worn over contaminated exam gloves to prevent cross contamination. Utility gloves are worn while processing contaminated instruments.

31 Scrap amalgam falls under which classification of waste?

a. General waste

b. Hazardous waste

c. Contaminated waste

d. Infectious waste

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Hazardous waste poses a danger to humans or the environment. Mercury and other toxic chemicals fall under this category. State and local regulations must be followed when disposing of hazardous waste.

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32 Paper towels falls under which classification of waste?

a. General waste

b. Hazardous waste

c. Contaminated waste

d. Infectious waste

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Items that do not come in contact with blood or saliva like mixing pads, empty containers and paper towels are considered general waste and may be disposed of in covered plastic or metal containers.

33 The portal of entry for air-borne pathogens does NOT include which area?

a. Mouth

b. Nose

c. Skin

d. Mucous membranes

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Air-borne pathogens cannot penetrate skin. Blood-borne pathogens may enter the body through a break in the skin, or through the mucous membranes of the nose and mouth.

34 Which type of infection presents symptoms that come and go?

a. Chronic

b. Acute

c. Latent

d. Opportunistic

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Latent infections such as cold sores lay dormant until certain conditions such as an illness or stress cause an outbreak. Chronic infections are present for a long duration. Acute infections may be severe but are of short duration. Opportunistic infections occur in people with compromised resistance, such as patients with diabetes, autoimmune disease or the elderly.

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Dental Radiography

35 What type of film allows the entire dentition to be viewed on a single film?

a. Occlusal

b. Cephelometric

c. Panoramic

d. All of the above

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Panoramic films allow the entire dentition to be viewed on a single, large film. Occlusal and Cephalometric radiographs only show a section of the dentition.

36 Which of the following is not a main component of a panoramic x-ray unit?

a. Tubehead

b. Head positioner

c. Panoramic film

d. Exposure controls

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Panoramic film is not a major component of a panoramic x-ray unit. The main components are the tubehead, head positioner and exposure controls.

37 What type of device does digital radiography use to record images taken of the patient's teeth?

a. Standard x-ray film, with scanner

b. Electronic sensor

c. MRI sensor

d. All of the above

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Electronic sensors are used in lieu of standard x-ray films when recording images of a patient's teeth. While standard films can have their image scanned into an electronic program, they are not by definition, digital x-rays.

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38 Which of the following inflicts the most radiation on a patient?

a. FMX

b. Panoramic

c. Bitewing series

d. PA

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

FMX series inflict more radiation on a patient because they require multiple exposures for 18 to 20 films. A PA is one film. A bitewing series consists of 2 to 4 films. A panoramic image is not intraoral.

39 What step helps prevent a large radiolucent area near the palate as seen on panoramic x-rays?

a. Placing the patient's midsagittal plane perpendicular to the floor

b. Having the patient stand as straight as possible

c. Having the patient place their tongue on the roof of their mouth

d. Having the patient smile with their lips apart

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Having the patient place their tongue on the roof of their mouth during a panoramic x-ray prevents the appearance of a large radiolucent area near the palate on the processed x-ray.

40 Why does digital radiography require less radiation than traditional x-rays?

a. The x-ray beams are more powerful.

b. It uses lower wave-length radiation.

c. Sensors are more sensitive.

d. All of the above

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Sensors are more sensitive with digital radiography than traditional x-ray films, allowing the exposure time to be less, reducing radiation.

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41 Refer to the radiograph to answer the next three quesitons.

This is an example of what type of dental radiograph?

a. Bitewing

b. Intraoral

c. Periapical

d. Panoramic

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Bitewings and periapical images show a small section of the dentition. Panoramic images display the entire dentition. Panoramic radiographs are extraoral images, not intraoral.

42 How many root canal treated teeth are present on the mandibular arch?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Tooth #18 and tooth #20 have been treated with root canal therapy. The material used to fill the canals after the nerves were removed can be seen on the radiograph as white lines going down the roots of the teeth. There are also several root canal treated teeth on the maxillary arch.

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43 This patient has a bridge on the lower left quadrant. How many pontics does this bridge contain?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 5

d. 7

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

A pontic is the artificial tooth that replaces a natural tooth that has been lost. Every bridge will have a minimum of 1 pontic. The pontic on this bridge is replacing tooth #19. The bridge is supported by two abutments (#18 and #20) that support and retain the bridge.

44 Digital x-ray sensors:

a. Cannot be sterilized

b. Are sealed and waterproofed

c. Must be covered with a barrier

d. All of the above

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Intraoral sensors are waterproofed by the manufacturer, but because they cannot be sterilized, they must have a disposable barrier placed on them prior to use with each patient.

45 Which type of dental radiograph shows 3D images?

a. CBCT

b. Bitewing

c. Occlusal Film

d. Panoramic

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Bitewings, panoramic, periapical, and occlusal radiographs display 2D images. Cone beam Computed Tomography (CBCT) displays the head and neck in 3 dimensions. This is very helpful when planning implant placement, 3rd molar extractions, and other surgeries.

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46 What size film or sensor is recommended for pediatric patients with primary dentition?

a. 3

b. 2

c. 1

d. 0

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Size 0 is the smallest film/sensor size and is recommended for small mouths. Children with mixed dentition may be able to tolerate size 1 or 2.

47 Which instrument was designed for taking radiographs of teeth with endodontic instruments inside of them?

a. Rinn

b. Hemostat

c. EndoRay

d. Bite Block

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Although several tools may be used as aids in capturing radiographic images, the EndoRay holder was specifically designed for endodontic procedures. Filling materials and instruments like files that protrude from the tooth do not have to be removed when using this tool.

48 Which type of radiation initially comes from the x-ray tube?

a. Primary radiation

b. Secondary radiation

c. Solar radiation

d. Scatter radiation

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

The initial radiation that comes from an x-ray tube is primary radiation. Once contact is made with skin it becomes secondary radiation. Scatter radiation is a form of secondary radiation, and is dangerous to the patient and the operator.

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49 A lead apron with a thyroid collar will protect a patient from what type of radiation?

a. Thermal

b. Solar

c. Primary

d. Scatter

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

The thyroid gland is highly sensitive to scatter radiation. A lead apron with a thyroid collar must be used on all patients during radiographic procedures.

50 Why should fingers not be used to hold x-ray film or sensors while taking radiographs?

a. The fingers are exposed to radiation.

b. The fingers may get oils on the film.

c. The image may be overlapped.

d. The image may not be of diagnostic quality.

Incorrect. Please choose another answer.

Neither the patient or operator should hold an x-ray film or sensor while taking dental radiographs. This will unnecessarily expose their fingers and hand to dangerous radiation. Many tools are available to safely hold sensors and film.

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